Hi all
Alright monkeyc won. I started to be convinced that i am BP and that my original diagnosis wasn't OCD rather psychosis. If i recall the onset of my illness after the car accident just a few months after when i started to cry for no apparent reason except from the fear of exams, phobia you can say, then i would hide the rubber and the calculator as they made me nervous, intrusive thoughts to the extreme, my pdoc concluded this is OCD, in fact 3 pdocs did. But then I discovered today a detailed super article in wikipedia about BP far better than the one removed of the guy he wanted to inform us !!
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bipolar_disorder
it's a very good one. It says: "Distinguishing the illness is TRICKY, even for mental health professionals".
my 1st pdoc put me on zoloft and i became tense and hypomanic (a terminology i learned a few months ago only as i never heard about it before). So there was this 4th pdoc whom we consulted who is now dead, said since you turned to the other side (that was the expression he used) then you are bipolar. We thought then he is creazy because how come in 6 minutes he reached this conclusion, so we forgot about it completely and reverted to our original pdoc with whom we stayed since then.
on reading and doing some reflexions, i started to think it wasn't OCD rather psychosis and also because i was always hypomanic under the anafranil then calm down when it lessens in my blood, so i must have been BP2 with psychosis. In which case i believe that SEROQUEL should have been my pill from the beginning, because i need AP's and an MS and this drug combines both.
Now the reason for this post is to ask the following: I am almost sure now that I was BP2, now as i had the full blown bloody mania in 2006 (when i lived on the AD only) then i turned into BP1. Now monkeyc says "either you are bipolar or you are not bipolar". Good but i extrapolate further: Either you are BP1 or BP2 or else, etc... since I cannot as he said get transformed from OCD into BP, likewise i cannot get metamorphosed from BP2 into BP1. I read in some forums or in article - i can't remember now - if BP2 is not well treated the patient becomes BP1. Is this true ??? that is my question. and if this so then how does this contradicts with the fact that a certain type of illness is in your chromosomes or genes or whatever from the day you are born !!
thanks
one last remark, when you post, the site asks you which topic so i choose manic depression. isn't the time to replace it by bipolarity
adel ezz