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574118 tn?1305135284

the moonpanda theory

I had to call it this name, as this opinion i read it for the 1st time in a post of moonpanda. She said:

>>> the academia see bipolar disorder as being on a spectrum spreading from unipolar depression to classic manic depression, with variants falling everywhere in-between.""

now we know that numbers say fall on the so-called real line like there is a definite location for the number 2 and one for 3 , one for 1000 etc... like they are seated in their place by the so-called order property, a property of the real numbers.

Now as she said the unipolarly depressed those are the "lucky" ones in my view whereas an AD makes them euthymic. Once they stop taking the AD's they fall back into their previous location i.e. back to depression.

What about the bipolars, according to her there must be "good" bipolars and bad ones, i.e. those on the line joining the two extreme points depression and mania points but most probably with a tendency nearer to one of the two sides let it be the manic side, being the dangerous in the pdocs view.

But since every patient must be seated already in a definite location on the above line (depression mania line), how come the bipolar alternates between the 2 points.

a more plausible assumption is that a BP is an unstable phenomenon or say more liable to become unstable under the drugs, so AP's bring them down fast and AD's bring them high also fast so they need an MS to regulate them.

But where were they before taking the drugs ? the majority say in depression. And my modest view that all the psych illness begin with depression, whether Panic attack or GAD and all of them benefit from AD's except the so-called bipolars. No non-depressed person consult a pdoc, for what purpose ? usually it's depression which sends him to pdocs, or some form of attack that leaves him depressed. All BP2 tell you it started with a depression. Again the doctors tell you that any mania if left unattended will die out, but it's the danger of being left unattended for a period, so it's better to kill it right away.

Now suppose a BP patient is not given anything and by definition kept alternating between the 2 extreme points, where does he lie on the line spectrum at the onset of the disease??      
Best Answer
1167245 tn?1353878500
I'm really tired as I write this, so please bear with me if I'm getting a little incoherent, haha. I will try my best to explain myself!

I think what I was trying to say about this is that the spectrum spans between one mood disorder (unipolar depression) to another (bipolar I), not just from the state of depression to the state of mania. In fact, this view of placing depression and mania at two ends of a spectrum does not support the concept of mixed mood states, wherein both mania and depression are present at the same time (as is seen in dysphoric mania/ agitated depression). They are not entirely two discrete states, because they can mix together in countless way.

Again, this is only what I've been reading in recent publications, and so this spectrum view of bipolar disorder should still be viewed as a theoretical approach that is guiding a lot of current research.

Another way to visualize it simply, like what ecritmaman had said:
UP----BPII---------BPI

Person A: UP----BPII-x------BPI
(This person would be classified as BP II, because they are over the arbitrary spectrum threshold for BPII; however, they do not experience full blown manic episodes, so their place on the spectrum is placed between BP II and BPI depending on the specific course and symptoms of their personal illness. When given an AD, it could be very likely that the medication will cause hypomania, and that the person may go on to experience spontaneous hypomanias; their moods are destined to fluctuate more so than a unipolar depressed person, or even a person with cyclothymia)

Person B: UP--x-BPII----BPI
(This person would be classified as depressed, they have some "soft signs" of bipolarity, and they are getting close to the point where their moods are going to experience fluctations. It could be possible that an AD would bump them up over the threshold for BP II.)

The places on the poles indicate the particular case of a mood disorder the individual has. This place on the spectrum can change when factors are added in, such as an AD that bumps a UP patient who is bordering on BP; this could also happen when a person with BPII, AD induced or not, continues to worsen and begins to experience worsened manic episodes. Their place on the spectrum would be shifted closer to the BPI point at the far end. A person diagnosed as BPI from the very beginning, who has a "classic" form of the illness would have their plot on the spectrum at the very end. There are so many possible variations and manifestations of the disorder, because each person is going to experience different symptoms. In order to provide efficient treatment, we need to have these discrete points, but we also need to recognize that most people are falling all along this spectrum line due to the vast variations that manifest.

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1167245 tn?1353878500
There are some sites that summarize and explain this stuff better than I can right now that you might find helpful/ interesting:

http://www.psycheducation.org/depression/02_diagnosis.html#soft
This even has its own graph showing the spectrum and explaining the concept.

This comes from the home site, http://www.psycheducation.org/ , which has many interesting information about bipolarity, specifically BPII. It's a decent read and it puts things in an interesting perspective. I would also recommend reading the page on mixed states and viewing them as "waves" :

http://www.psycheducation.org/depression/Waves.htm
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Avatar universal
Excellent example :)

I love numbers... makes perfect sense that way!
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952564 tn?1268368647
Maybe think of it like diabetes. Diabetes checks your hemoglobin A1c which tests for average levels of glucose in your blood every 3 months.

Hypoglycemic 4.7% and down
Normal is 4.8%-5.6%
Pre-Diabetes is 5.7%-6.5%
Diabetes is 6.6% and up.

I've seen people with A1c results at high as 17%, which is pretty dangerous.

Now, people with bipolar don't have a test like an A1c, but I would say that if A1c glucose levels = bipolar mood levels (with smaller numbers equalling depression and higher numbers mania) it would look like this:

Depression 4.7% and down
Normal 5.0%-5.6%
Cyclothymic 5.7%-6.0%
Bipolar II 6.1%-7.0%
Bipolar I 7.1% and up

I think just like people with diabetes who take too much insulin can have sever hypoglycemic episodes, it is the same with people and bipolar taking an AD, except instead of hypoglycemia we get mania. When people with just depression take an AD it bumps them up into that normal range.

Anyway, I just thought maybe thinking of it at a different angle would help.
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Avatar universal
*widely, not wildly

:)
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Avatar universal
From what my last psychiatrist said... the spectrum was like this:

unipolar depression
to
high mania and severe depression.

So BP2 would fall somewhere in the middle, if that makes sense.

So the spectrum is more of a 'doesn't fluctuate moods' to 'mood fluctuates wildly', not a depressed to manic spectrum.
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Avatar universal
There are a bunch of diagnoses on that scale, and each one has different diagnostic criteria.

I was diagnosed as Bipolar II, which could be seen as just another point on that scale. I was on an anti-depressant and a mood stabalizer and it was horrible.

The scale you're talking about would really depend on the exact symptoms. My symptoms, even when they went back to being untreated, wouldn't be the same as someone with major depressive disorder or someone who was just straight Bipolar I.

So really I'm not sure about this theory, I suppose. But that's just my two cents.
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952564 tn?1268368647
I can only speak for myself on this. Where was I before being diagnosed? Exactly where I am right now except without lithium. Up until last year I was still a rapid cycler, although not cycling as fast as I am since last May, which is when things got bad. I had possible psychotic episodes multiple times in my life starting in childhood. I was never treated or medicated except for 2-3 months of therapy in 1991, a little grief counseling after my mom died in 1992, and 2 weeks on Abilify in 2006 which caused me to have a bad reaction to it. I never took an AD.

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