I recently went to see a private eye doctor and he sent me a report with his findings. I was wondering if anyone on here can explain his findings in simple terms and what course of treatement should I request. This would be much appreciated as I am very concerned.
The report goes as follows:
"He had no lens opacities bilaterally. The anterior viterous of the left eye showed cells. Fundus examination of the right eye showed an area of laser photocoagulation temporally and inferotemporally. There was no sign of any active problems in the right eye. In the left eye he had also an area of laser photocoagulation which was more extensive in his temporal retinal and inside that area there was a large, fresh haemorrhage adjacent to one smaller area of fibrosis, probably representing a previous neovascular complex. He had a larger viterous condensation centrally and an impending PVD. in the papillomacular bundle there was an epiretinal membrane with some folds stretching towards the central macula. there was no macular odema and no disc swelling.
I organised for him to have a b-scan today which showed no signs of scleritis or orbital myositis."
My questions are what does the following mean "The anterior viterous of the left eye showed cells" does it mean I have inflammation in the viterous.