I have a partial thickness macular hole with splitting of the retina (about midway between inner and outer retinal layers) and widespread epiretinal membrane. I do not have PVD or myopia and am 49yrs. Visual acuity is 20/30 +2 correctable to better but with distortions on Amsler grid. He thinks we should wait 2 months to see if hole or splitting has changed. My primary questions concerns whether the other eye is affected with very early signs.
In particular, in the right unaffected eye the ILM-RPE thickness is LESS than normal- thinner. In the very central region (center of the bullseye) it is 210um, which is below the 5% mark of normal population. This is from a cirrus OCT and in a stratus OCT from a few days earlier it was below the 1%ile at 156um. Back to the cirrus oct, the 4 quadrents that immediatley surround it are also below the 5th percentile at 298, 289, 293, and 285 in superior, nasal, inferiorer, and temporal quadrants respectively. The question is whether the abnornal thinning described above is the same thing as "involutional foveal thinning". (The reasons I ask is that from what i've read, if you have that in the fellow eye, it is more likely to develop the macualr hole like the affected eye). Excuse the ignorance, but i don't know what involutional thinning is. If it's not involutional foveal thinning, then what could that thinning on OCT refer to? of course i will eventually ask the retinal specialist all of this, but would like input on it from you folks too. (andc an there be different interpretations of the meaning of a thin yellow top layer on OCT?)
of course any comments about the currently affected left eye are welcome. i understand why waiting is advised, but i also will never get back the vision i have now if the hole reaches the photoreceptors or does further macular damage. Is one month (rather than two) enough time to assess any meaningful changes on OCT? thanks folks!