Hi folks -
so I posted once before and the guidance I received was that my test was conclusive - I appreciate the answers and responses and don't take them for granted but I wanted to give a bit more context to see if anything changes as my symptoms are very real.
While blackout drunk, to the best of my recollection I had unprotected insertive anal sex with an unknown individual on Feb 8. 2 weeks later i had multiple symptoms including sever chills, head pressure, headaches, night sweats. I was diagnosed with a sinus infection but have since learned through xrays that it was a misdiagnosis. Was on 3 rounds of antibiotics, oral prednisone (30mg x 7days) and a nasal steroid.
My latest test at 45 days with a DUO was negative. The steroids were finished 4 days before the 40 day test. I now have a facial palsy (left cheek and forehead) and peripheral neuropathy in both hands and feet - diagnosed at ER.
I have been careful with the activities engaged in with my husband since my potential exposure (limited to mutual oral, annilingus and masturbation; however, I am concerned because at one point my husband used my ejaculate as lube for the purposes of masturating himself. (sorry for the detail) - there is a documented case of HIV being passed in this fashion... 10 days after this incident he developed a widespread rash on his torso along with dry cough and significant night sweats. The ongoing symptoms are concerning despite tests.
A few things have come to mind and I find conflicting information online. Could the steroids have affected the results? They were finished shortly before my 45 day test and I've read that they can delay antibody production. While I understand this will not affect the antigen part of the test, I remain concerned that if this is an HIV2 infection the antigen part of the test is useless in any event. I've read the CDC guidance and the research done to support the 45 days and it is clear it applies only to HIV1 infections. Given that and the potential for steroids to delay antibody production do you think there is a realistic chance my 45 day was a false negative.
I'm also current in remission (no medications) for crohns as well - could this affect tests?
I was putting things behind me until my spouses symptoms started and now I’m feeling completely gutted.
The infectious disease doc at the clinic I went to indicated 45 days is about 94% conclusive with the duo assay our lab uses - but I thought the 45 day conclusive applied to all licenced assays in the USA (and presumably Canada)
Again, I know I've already received some advice on this which is appreciate but I'm curious if any of the above details change the assessment. Thanks!