The reason condone may not protect against syphilis is because they may not cover an exposed area. Given the nature of your described exposure, that she did not have visible lesions, and the rarity of syphilis, I would not be worried. EWH
Thank you very much for your quick respond.
I will be having peace on my mind now.
There is so much misleading information on the internet...
And just one last clearification if we presume she had syphilis with no visible symptoms (no rashes or sores) is there any chance I could have contracted it.
I am asking because I read online that the condoms don't always protect us from syphilis, Does the syphilis bacteria infect a healthy person only when a sore comes in contact with a mucous membrane or cut (open or not) or just when it comes in contact with the skin (for example penis shaft, testicles, belly etc.).
And if there are no sores or rashes can it be contracted from mucous membrane to mucous membrane contact.
Thank you very much.
Welcome to the Forum. I'll be pleased to comment. The encounter you describe was safe sex and and there in no concern for HIV from your description. Even before we consider the condom, your risk for infection was low. Most commercial sex workers do not have HIV and most exposures do not lead to infection. There are no cases in which HIV has been proven to be transmitted through receipt of oral sex and and, on avergae, only one infection occurs per 1000 exposures IF your partner was infected.
In your case, a condom was worn throughout the exposure making it safe sex. If the condom had broken, it would have broken wide open leaving no doubt that it had failed. Condoms do not leak "just a little".
I would not worry if I were you and, from a medical perspetive there is no reason for testing related to this exposure. I hope these comments are helpful. EWH
I forgot to mention that I am in Bulgaria (Eastern Europe), if that makes any difference...