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Question of risk

Hi Everyone,

Here's the deal, and I'd appreciate some best guesses and opinions from the folks here that have "been around the block" and are familiar with everything from real risks to hypochondriacs like myself.

A couple weeks ago I met a 20 year old woman in Poland, things happened, and while I was looking for a relationship, she wasn't and her long-term, injection drug using boyfriend just might disapprove.  Something she might have told me before we hopped in the sack and before the breakfast discussion.  Live and learn.

Here's the play by play.

Received oral, both protected and unprotected. On the protected oral, I could feel teeth, but checked and didn't see any punctures, tears, rips.  Screwed up before screwing, used the same condom for penetration. Upon ejaculation, pulled out, condom intact, again with no visible problems and wasn't too concerned about a leak/break.

We had marathon sex, and the the foreskin got chafed along the way.  Used lube, just not enough. None of the condoms we used that night had visible problems either before or after. But she did give me unprotected oral in between rolls in the hay.

My questions:

1. I know saliva does not normally carry infectious HIV. Is this true even if she would have been in the window period before or during ARS? I talked with her today and she is terribly sick, which has got my hairs standing up even though I know we're smack dab in the middle of cold/flu season.  I've already suggested we get tested together, but she refuses so I have to wait until the calendar moves forward a little bit.

2. I've had a vicious sore throat that started the following day. It's led to swollen lymphs that started a couple days ago and it's not responding to prescribed antibiotics even after a week of treatment.  My concern there is an STD, but there was no discharge or undue discomfort. While there was some pain during urination the day after, I attribute that to not having enough lube and a possible latex allergy causing a UTI.  Can STD's like Gonorrhea/Chlamydia come and go and cause these types of symptoms?  I am waiting for results on those tests right now.  There's been no fever, night sweats, rashes, and I know symptoms are never a good indicator, but I've been on Google...

3. I've never had a condom fail. I'm a little concerned there might have been a small hole that I couldn't see. Are they prone to microscopic tears/rips, or am I just being paranoid?

4. If, worse case, the Gonorrhea/Chlamydia tests come back positive, is there an increased likelihood of HIV transmission to me via the unprotected oral exposure?  I get tested every 6 months, and she's the only partner I've had in that interim, so I know if those are positive when and where it happened.

I know seroprevalence where I'm at is roughly 1 in 250 women. Comforting odds until you consider her boyfriend is an occasional IDU, a group that has nearly a 10% seroprevalence rate.

Based on everything, what is your assessment?




Best Answer
480448 tn?1426948538
You didn't have an HIV risk.

The different STDs you mention are all very different in their mode of transmission and ease of transmission.  You cannot directly compare HIV to STDs like gonorrhea and chlamydia.  Apples and oranges.

Put this behind you, you don't have a concern.
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Avatar universal
No it does not change anything. You never had an exposure.
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Avatar universal
Hi Nursegirl, Teak,

A little bit of an update, and some not so good news. After visiting a urologist today he did diagnose HSV2, gave me some Valtrex and said congratulations you're now one of the many...I'm just thrilled to have joined the club.

This woman is the only person I've been with in a long time, and I was tested for everything back in January long after all window periods had elapsed. Thus, I don't have to ask when and where I got this.  

I've called her, but she refuses to get tested. This Friday will be 6 weeks since the mattress mambo.

Based on this new development, and in your opinions and experience does this significantly change the risk profile?   Would you recommend a P24 test?

Thanks!
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Avatar universal
Not an HIV concern. reread what Teak has told you
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Avatar universal
Had you read it correctly, HIV is found but not infectious. Saliva has over a dozen different enzymes and proteins that inhibits HIV to take place.
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Avatar universal
Thanks, Teak.  I know the oral is a qtnd's, it's just reassuring to ask it and get the same answer. It's a little confusing because the UK did a study a few years ago that said infectious HIV has been found in saliva during the seroconversion period. Of course, it's England and they can't even spell correctly, so I'll take it with a grain of salt and some chips.

I am a bit concerned because the Dr. who examined me last week did seem to think the sore throat and early burning during urination could very well be gonorrhea or chlamydia.  Would it have been possible for her to transmit those to me without transmitting HIV (if, of course if she had it to begin with?)  I'm not a med professional, so understanding the difference between the ease at which bacterial/viral transmissions occur is something I'm not familiar with. If the tests come back positive for the bacterial infections, is it fair to assume that if she has HIV there could be a greater risk for infection?

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Avatar universal
You never had an HIV exposure from oral sex.
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