Good day Teak,
Quick question (and I am sure others will notice why). In the post you put out as a response to Beyond_Stressed (
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/HIV---Oral-Sex/show/1453706?personal_page_id=2031711#post_6616954) Dr, H states "Oral sex almost never transmits HIV, so you really were not at significant risk."
That differs somewhat from the usual statement that "oral sex = no risk".
Should we presume that it is only because the good Dr. is covering all the potential (and anecdotal) clinical bases, allowing for "the one" possible case of a "partner having incredibly poor gum conditions with open wounds and receiving a very high viral dose through semen in the mouth" sort of thing ?
I presume the answer is a simple "yes", but just to confirm.
Thanks !