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condom did not provide 100% safety

First question: I read some journals about condom effectiveness in protecting hiv contracting,
just finding that different from what you say, condom did not provide absolute 100% protection. There were still some reported cases of hiv contracting even though condoms were consistently used and the couple was sure that they used the condom properly.  Could you give some explaination about this ? .

Second question: If there are some rupia or wound at the bottom of pennis, some secretion of a femal contact the wound during strong sex movement, is there a possibility to contact hiv?
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Avatar universal
You are such a good person! Your comment is very helpful to me!  Thank you !!
Helpful - 0
480448 tn?1426948538
Yes, we already discussed this, but I'll elaborate a bit for you...

The physiology of HIV transmission is fairly easy to understand.  The most important thing to understand is that SEVERAL factors MUST ALL be present in order for an exposure to be a risk.  If ANY of those factors are not present, then transmission will not occur, period.  Even if all but ONE factor were present, HIV still would not be a concern.  Here's an explanation of whay those factors are:

ONE, HIV cannot penetrate intact skin, and what would constitue a "wound" deep enough and severe enough to MAYBE cause a blood exposure risk (not genital secretions, as no one has ever been infected by getting genital secretions into an open wound) would necessitate a trip to the hospital for stitches.  The skin is compromised of MANY protective layers, and any cut or scrape begins to heal immediately from the inside out, causing a barrier.  HIV cannot access the bloodstream, which is HAS to do to cause infection, in this manner.

TWO, a real exposure to HIV would involve copious amounts of infectious fluids, not a small amount.

THREE, another factor that MUST be present in order for HIV transmission to be a possibility is the viability of the virus itself.  The HIV virus is extremely fragile and becomes inactive when exposed to the elements.  It can only remain active when it is INSIDE a human's body.  This is why you cannot get HIV from toilet seats, utensils, casual contact, etc.   If the virus has been exposed to the elements, it's already begun the process of becoming inactive, which involves a breakdown of it's outer shell.  The outer shell of the virus is the precise part that is responsible for latching onto the receptor t-cells of the partner, to cause infection.  That cannot occur with a damaged virus.  Kind of like a lock and key.  Even if a key is only SLIGHTLY bent or damaged, it won't unlock the door.

You literally have to have unprotected anal or vaginal sex where you would be exposed to infectious fluids, (the point of entry being the urethral opening at the top of your penis), while your penis was inside a vagina or an anus, where the virus remains active and infectious.  The only other way you, as an adult, could become infected is if you shared IV drugs.  That's because you would be injecting infectious blood frm the user before you DIRECTLY into your bloodstream.

Now, like Vance said, you can choose to believe you had a risk if you like, but we've given you our assessment, and now I've given you a VERY detailed answer as to why HIV transmission would not be possible in the manner you describe.  Feel free to ask the docs on our expert forum who have DECADES of experience as HIV specialists if you want more reasurance.  I would bet you money they're going to also tell you you didn't have an HIV risk:

http://www.medhelp.org/forums/HIV---Prevention/show/117

FYI--There is a nominal fee to post a question in their forum.

You never had an HIV risk, and do not need testing.  Please kindly move along.
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Avatar universal
If you have a risk you want to discuss then so be it. But you can "think" whatever you want, but you will be wrong when it comes to HIV.

You don't understand what deep tissue is, a cut or a scrape is no where near deep tissue, those are called superficial wounds.

"among the couple who still contract hiv although condom is used" no way that they might not have used a condom 1 time right? Or no way a condom broke right?
What is more likely that they didn't use a condom or a condom broke or somehow HIV magically entered a small cut (which already had a barrier from it not bleeding) and enough fluid gets into that cut and just works it was into the blood stream? Logic and reason dictates that is not going to happen.
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Avatar universal
but there is some compression and abrasion during the sex, so the secretion can be compressed into deep tissue. I have been suspecting that it may be the viginal secrection that contact the wound, leading to hiv contraction reported among the couple who still contract hiv although condom is used
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
1. Nursegirl already gave you a great and detailed answer to this. It's worthless to answer it again.

2. No, "wounds" have a barrier and no access to deep tissue/muscle or the blood stream.
Helpful - 0
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