there are diiferent terms used for describing oral sex on medhelp and on other sources: low risk, neglible risk, no risk, some say low risk but not low risk. i am curious about whether oral sex is 0 risk. i believe cdc stated it has a risk of 0·5 to 1 per 10000 exposure. if that is the case, why is the term no risk used? although cases of getting infected with hiv is rare and probably less than 10, arent they risk too?