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confused about terms

there are diiferent terms used for describing oral sex on medhelp and on other sources: low risk, neglible risk, no risk, some say low risk but not low risk. i am curious about whether oral sex is 0 risk. i believe cdc stated it has a risk of 0·5 to 1 per 10000 exposure. if that is the case, why is the term no risk used? although cases of getting infected with hiv is rare and probably less than 10, arent they risk too?
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Avatar universal
This site has previously advised you there is no risk.
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3191940 tn?1447268717
COMMUNITY LEADER
It's the same risk as travelling over an engineered bridge, which has a 99.7% estimated safety percentage. Do you worry about travelling over a bridge, or do you swim across, just to be safe?  No one does the latter.  

There is nothing in life that is 100% safe.  Give the same regard to oral sex risk as you do travelling in a car over an engineered bridge, which is no regard at all - unless you have an irrational fear of bridges.
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20801659 tn?1520443393
COMMUNITY LEADER
You have to know that the mouth is a really hostile environment for the virus. Saliva contains enzymes that inactivate the virus.
As CurfewX was saying, there is nothing 100% safe, but the most important thing about oral sex is the risk of other STDs.
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