After a questionable ECG Dx of (asymptomatic--only 2 episodes of short term nocturnal SOB) "septal MI"w/ neg.(no CAD, but lack of fitness) stressed echocardio, a 63 yo WM with sporadic untreated asthma, chronic (30yr) use of desiccated thyroid, has his 30yr untreated essential HTN controlled w/3 meds.(B-block/ACEInh./Hctz). Now he has (3) EPISODES OF increasingly severe post-prandial SOB, thready pulse and diaphoresis with some mild queeziness on first 2 epis. after extreme food overindulgence at conferences--no chest pain, no abdl distention or tenderness, no palpitations, no H/O BG or lyte irreg. His initial ECG 2 yrs ago at time of first Dx & Tx of HTN showed incomplete RBBB (PH/O R conduction defect X 30yrs and LVH with ST "slur" and he had PVCs almost every min.for 30yrs. since he was put on thyroid (1 1/2 gr.)(they disappeared as soon as dose reduced to 1 gr.!, 1 yr.ago). Are these episodes more likely examples of variant of angina, hypoglycemic, hypotensive or hypertensive vasovagal reaction, cardiogenic shock or some (albeit lowgrade/benign) paraneoplastic condition? How should he be worked up? What condition would be most common? Which would be most dangerous? Which most treatable?