My previous questions involved my own oral cold sores and the fear of the possibility of transmission to my (at the time) newborn child through kissing the baby's skin. Thank you for the responses to those questions, and I am happy to report that the baby was absolutely fine.
This question, however, has to do with the possibility of autoinnoculation. I get very frequent outbreaks (1-3 per month) when not on Valtrex. I have only ever had HSV 1 on the lower lip of my mouth, never genital infections. I have been having outbreaks for 8-9 years. I have never had genital herpes.
My husband and I had sex while I had an active, weeping cold sore on my lip. He knew about it, and we have kissed many times over the years while I had cold sores, and he has never had an outbreak. He didn't care. I am sorry that this constitutes "too much information", but after making out with me, licked his fingers with *his own mouth* and then touched my genitals vigorously. He did not touch my mouth at all, be he had been recently kissing me. To clarify, he did not have a cold sore on his mouth, but I did, and it was in the weeping stage. he did not touch my mouth, but touched his own mouth, and used his own saliva, after kissing me, and touched my genitals vigorously.
I know that autoinoculation is rare beyond an initial, primary outbreak, but I want to know if anyone thinks it is likely that I could now have infected my genitals with the virus from vigorous contact after he licked his fingers?
Thank you in advance.