I took a 10 panel + urine test earlier this week, and these were the results:
164897 HSV Type 1-Specific Ab, IgG: 44.9
163033 HSV-2 Type Spec Ab, IgG w/Rflx: 1.82
163006 HSV-2 IgG Supplemental Test:
Abnormal Positive Negative
I'm at peace with the positive HSV1 result, as I'm fairly certain my mother has had periodic cold sores as long as I can remember (well into my childhood).
However, the HSV2 results are confusing. I've read differing opinions on whether or not a positive HSV1 infection can corrupt the results of a HSV2 IgG test, especially if the HSV2 value is between 1-3 (mine being 1.82).
I have never had a lesion that has swelled and popped, just small raised hair follicles every now and then that I assume is from shaving and irritation. I have a couple small marks on my penis, but they don't swell, don't blister, don't pop, and have been there for well over a year without changing much. I assume those are natural skin anomalies. They don't itch or bother me at all, just slightly unsightly.
The 1.82 HSV2 result, along with the "abnormal positive negative" verbiage written after the supplemental test is confusing, especially with no hsv2 symptoms. I really just took the test on a whim. I'm negative for HIV, HEP A/B/C, and most of my blood work is normal.
"Positive/Equivocal Negative Unable to confirm the presence of IgG antibodies to HSV-2. Recommend retesting in 2-4 weeks."
That was the exact verbiage after the supplemental test.
I guess I'm just looking for advice on whether or not it's worth getting the Western Blot test, or if I should do another antibody test 2-4 weeks from now. If a 2nd antibody test is likely to be inconclusive as well, I would rather just pay the money for the Western Blot and be sure of my status.
Another fact is that I haven't had sex, or even kissed anyone, in over 2 years. From what I've been reading, a low-positive result is typically associated with a new infection, which would be impossible (at least within the past 2 years), before the body has developed many antibodies. My thought is that with 2+ years of no sex, and a 1.8 positive result, it's likely a false positive, but any opinions on the matter (and whether or not more testing is prudent) are greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.