I am 41 y.o. woman. In 2010 I asked GP to test me for STI upon learning of husband's affairs.
type specific antibody test results:
negative, < 0.9 HSV-1 IgG
positive, 1.39 HSV-2 IgG
husband took same test; negative for HSV-1 and HSV-2
I did not retest. I never experienced outbreak: oral or genital, thought my result could be false positive since husband and I had been having unprotected sex for 15+ years nd that I would retest down the road.
In 2012, I asked to test for all STI, this time OB/GYN. I did not specifically ask for HSV test. All results negative.
Now, 2014, I have new partner. I just learned that I was not tested for HSV in 2012.
Last week I received the following type specific results:
Negative, <0.9 HSV-1 IgG
Positive, 1.19 HSV-2 IgG
Based on ex-husband's negative results in 2010, if I have HSV-2, I've had it since the mid 1990s from someone else. This is not impossible based on sexual history, although I never had sex with someone with visible outbreak.
Over years, more in early/mid 20s I experienced yeast infections that required prescription anti-fungals but did respond to treatment. I also had BV a few times and various discomfort/itching at sporadic times in my genital area. No docs mentioned HSV.
I want to give new partner as much info as possible. (He knows all of the above, he's recently been tested and is negative for both HSV-1 and HSV-2. we have had unprotected sex a couple of times a week for 9 months or so, until I learned I wasn't actually tested and negative in 2012). I know his recent test only shows whether he got it from me 3+ months ago.
1) should I invest in Western Blot test?
2) if I am positive, can I assume because my ex-husband never contracted HSV-2, that I don't shed virus very often or that ex-husband was just lucky not to catch it?
3) new partner not inclined to use condoms. If I am positive, should I go on suppressive medication and how much will that reduce likelihood of transmission?