A few questions about my test results:
I recently tested positive for HSV1 (IgG 8.0); and HSV2 (IgG 2.06), although I have had no symptoms for either. Based upon bloodwork done a couple of years ago, I tested positive for HSV1 but negative for HSV2, so it appears that I obtained the HSV2 infection sometime in between. I know from reading these boards that the HSV2 result could be a false positive because it is below 3.5, but given that I previously tested completely negative for HSV2, doesn't this mean that the HSV2 is unlikely to be a false positive? Isn't it more likely that the low positive is a sign of a recent infection building antibodies? Either way, I'm going to get tested again but my last sexual encounter was only two weeks ago, so I figure I'm going to wait a while.
Also my doctor seemed strangely dismissive of the results as if it were "no big deal" because the virus is so hard to avoid and even HSV2 can be transmitted from kissing. That's not my understanding at all so I think he's just wrong about that. He also dismissed any notion that this could be a false positive or that the higher HSV1 score may have impacted the HSV2 score, saying that I'm definitely infected -- so I think I'm going to go to a different doctor to get retested.
Even more troubling, I obviously do not want to pass this on to any partner, so I asked my doctor about anti-viral suppression to limit the odds. He said that my test score does not make me a candidate for drugs, particularly since I'm asymptomatic, but if condoms are not going to be 100% effective, am I supposed to just live with those odds? He also said that anyone who has an index number lower than 5.0 is at a lower risk of transmitting infection. I have spent the last 2 days browsing through online literature and have not seen anyone say this so I'm really skeptical about that. Can anyone confirm this?