I had sex with a new partner for the first time on February 5, 2012. Shortly thereafter I found by "chance" (in other words... I was snooping) a prescription for ACYCLOVIR in his name. This prompted me to request an HSV2 blood test although I had no visible symptoms, lesions, or blisters.
I provided a blood sample on 3/2/12 and my blood test came back with the following result:
HSV2 Ab, IgG 3.40 Positive
What strikes me as odd is that the nurse who informed me of my results stated that this was not a "recent" exposure and that my new partner would not have been the person who transmitted this to me.
Is it just coincidental that I have never experienced any "typical" herpes symptoms, I slept with a man who has an Acyclovir prescription, and then I test positive for HSV2 shortly thereafter but it's supposedly an older infection? Should I be retested?
Also, is there any other reason he would be taking Acyclovir? I asked him if he has been tested for herpes and if he is knowledgeable about any previous exposure or a current infection but he stated that he has never experienced any symptoms and that he is not aware of having herpes. I did not specifically ask what the Acyclovir was for....yet.