I tested positive for the non-type specific herpes igM test back in December. I tested again last week the igM was still positive 1.40 but I had my ob do type specific and both hsv1 and hsv2 came back negative. The test was HerpesSelect. How likely is it that the igM is a false-positive? The reason for that question is because shouldn’t the igG antibodies be present for either one by now? Also is it possible for the igM to pick of varicella virus, from past vaccine or the outbreak itself (honest answer)? Lastly, do I have herpes or not? Apparently the obgyn’s I have been to are not knowledgeable enough to give me a clear cut answer and explanation.I ordered the western blot test from the University of Washington, they are sending me the test kit. I spoke to one a few of the lab scientists and was told disregard the igM if the igG is negative i don’t have it. and given the last sexual encounter before the December test was late august. The igG should have been present by now to test positive. Do you agree?