Hello, first off here is a little info about me: I have had oral herpes since I was a little kid. I very rarely get outbreaks on my lips in the form of cold sores.
I had a blood test done at a clinic called Planned Parenthood a couple years ago which came back positive for HSV1, but negative for HSV2.
I have had unprotected sex with a few girls this past year and I want to make sure that I did not pick up HSV1 genitally.
I have had no signs of symptoms on my genitals, no headaches, nothing at all.
Am I correct to assume that I have been safe from HSV1 infections genitally if I had unprotected sex? (my partners did not show any signs or symptoms and the time and I believed they were all negative.)
I understand that I can get HSV2 on genitals even if I have had oral HSV1 for many years.
However I am confused if I can get HSV1 on genitals or not if I have had oral HSV1 for many years.
When I went to a Planned Parenthood clinic a week ago, I spoke to their doctor and she said that I can NOT get genital HSV1 because I already have it orally.
Basically, I want to determine my genital HSV1 status If I get a blood test for HSV1 it will come back positive because I have oral HSV1, but that test won't specify if I have it genitally or not. Note that I have never had any kind of outbreak on my genitals.
I know that I am HSV2 negative, and a blood test for HSV2 will show that I am negative so I don't have to worry about HSV2 oral or genital herpes.
But since I have HSV1 orally I feel like it makes it impossible to determine if I have it genitally.