Just below the head of the penis and slightly to the left, I ripped some skin off (circular in shape about half a centimeter in diameter; i say 'ripped a layer of skin' because it was evident from the fact that the borders of this circle had tiny bits of loose skin hanging off) from masturbating about 2 or 2 and a half weeks ago, or I at least have good reason to believe that this is what actually happened since I was masturbating with no lubricant and there was a lot of friction. In a day or two it was healing (scabbing). I masturbated again, and due to the rubbing it tore the scab off and so it had to re-heal again. Some time later (a day or two) however, 3 white bumps were evidently on the wound. I didn't think much of it at the time, I didn't think it was an STD due to the fact that the only thing I've done was receive unprotected oral sex 9 months ago... I thought if I had been infected with herpes, it certainly would have showed up a long time ago. The bumps eventually turned red in another day or two, resembling what looked like acne. I had it looked at by my health care provider and he ruled out the possibility that the bumps were warts, nor were they acne. He did swab the wound however to do a viral culture test for herpes. He said the bumps, in accordance with the series of events I'm relaying now, makes it likely that it was just a sign of skin tearing. Now, here are my questions...
1. Initially, it had all the signs of penile trauma that I myself caused (or at least think caused), that it was just a wound and nothing more. Were the bumps (see, they were so small it was hard to tell if they were bumps or herpetic blisters and I dunno, but to me, when they turned from white to red it did resemble pimples) likely due to skin tearing and penile trauma and NOT genital herpetic blisters? Additionally, is it still plausible that the bumps were indeed herpetic blisters since the wound was already present for a while WAY before any white bumps showed up? (As in, I would think the blisters would show up immediately, not the wound scabbing with no sign of lesions if it indeed was a herpes outbreak)
Is it more likely to be just penile trauma or an actual genital herpes outbreak?
2. The health care provider swabbed the wound the white bumps had turned red. My health care provider, through observing the wound, said "it wasn't that old". Can I be fairly confident that a negative result is an actual negative result and not just a false negative? (I've been reading lots about how unreliable this test is).
3. If indeed I cannot be that confident in the result of the viral culture, and since I've only had unprotected oral sex 9 months ago, I understand that the likely strain is a genital HSV-1, not HSV-2, herpes infection. I've also read how rare it is to have another outbreak. I'd really not like to wait months to years for another outbreak to confirm if indeed I contracted herpes or not. Is there another way to test and see which one I have (HSV-1, HSV-2) without having an outbreak? I mean it would really suck to not know for sure for months or even years if I have a genital HSV-1 or HSV-2 infection, if it indeed sounds like an actual herpes infection.
4. Since it's taken 9 months for the first "outbreak", if it is an outbreak and not penile trauma due to masturbating, is it likely to be a herpes infection? I've read all this stuff about how symptoms can be so mild and how it can take months, even years for the first outbreak. I don't have any other symptoms. It's not painful. No penile discharge. No fever... etc., etc.
Any help would be appreciated thanks...