Our forum members have expressed that they feel you had zero risk. There is nothing more to add to that so we are closing this thread. Good luck
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Should have also added that I did get an approx 1cm round red spot on inside of upper lip that never blistered. It did develop a tiny (2mm) erosion that healed in less than 24 hrs and had a yellowish tint while it did. Could this have been hsv1 and if so could it explain all of my lower back issues???
I totally agree with Don, You had Zero risk from your touching affair and associating any of your symptoms from contracting herpes is not possible. If your have rashes and sores its from something else but not from your affair.
I think your symptoms are nanifested by stress and anxiety as well as self examination. Thats why your symptoms build through the day and are not present in the morning (hsv doesn't take the night off)
Your symptoms are not hsv. Here is the deal. Yes tingling can be a symptom. A symptom of an up coming outbreak but never the first one. It's the virus crawling its way to the surface. If you were infected it is already on the skin. Muscle aches are part of an outbreak with flu like symptoms. These include fever, swollen lymph nodes and body aches. This is also with lesions present.
Yes I still believe and I am sure life360 will agree. Absolutely no risk of infection. You are fine. Let your mind relax and your symptoms will soon subside.
Ok kind experts, it's now nearly 4 days since this "event" and my symptoms are worse... Lots of aches in my lower back and buttock region, some tingling but no lesions. I did have a bilateral rash on my buttocks but saw an MD who unequivocally said it was contact dermatitis from sitting in a metal chair for hours (flight was delayed and the rash was perfectly symmetrical and corresponded perfectly with the tiny (probably 3mm) holes drilled into the seating).
the Dr gave me a steroid 24 hrs ago which has significantly reduced but not eliminated the rash... Again, there are no raised lesions anywhere (and trust me I've been monitoring).
I can say without a doubt that my account at the beginning of this post is accurate and complete. My only possible exposure could have been when she touched her vagina and then used that hand to rub my penis for two seconds and then switched back to the other hand to finish.
So, my questions are:
1) If my account is accurate - are my increasing symptoms just psychosomatic?
2) I notice that they are non or almost non-existent in the am and build throughout the day - would this be consistent with psychosomatic vs. real symptoms?
3) Is it common to have symptoms that are psychosomatically induced in the absence of infection? What else might explain these symptoms?
4) Most importantly, in light of my symptoms, do you still believe this is a zero-risk event? When I get home in 2 days my wife will expect unprotected sex. I don't want to risk infecting her.
Again, thanks for your help (and patience with my questions).
Sorry, disregard. I realize now that it HSV 1 not 2
Understood and thank you again. If that's the case, why is it that you can transfer HSV into you eye by touching an infected area and the eye?
No it definitely would not
Thanks again. Would her having touched her vagina and then having touched and then rub me qualify as genital to genital contact?
Contracting genital herpes requires naked genital to gential rubbing contact and most often when there are visiable genital sores at the time. Not by touching and especially from her hand to your genital.
Thank you Dave for your quick reply!
Being new here I don't have much context - would you mind briefly explaining the rationale for your view? Again, many thanks
Hi, you had zero risk for contracting any std including herpes from your affair.