A married woman with whom I have a FWB sexual relationship with for a year (always using condoms) informed me recently that a previous lover from over a year ago contacted her to tell her his wife was just diagnosed with condyloma...genital warts. He was sure he contracted it from the woman who is presently my lover, claiming he was only with her and he is sure his wife isnt cheating on him. From the situation (assuming what he claims is the truth) it seems clear my present lover is likely to be carrying the disease which means I too am probably carrying it as well as my wife(!?). She (lover) immediately went to get tested (visual and PAP smear). Her Md. reasured her she has no symptoms and nothing to worry about claiming the symtoms take 3 months to show up and since a year has passed with no signs , she is in the clear. I disscused the situation with my dermatologist who checked me visually and reassured me I have nothing to worry about. BUT I still don't have an answer to my question based on what I have read on the net. I understand one can carry the HPV virus without symtoms for 2 yrs or more. There is no true test to check if you are carrying the virus right? So couldnt the symtoms appear later than 3 months? Can I be sure my lover is not carrying the virus from previous encounters? Or if she is carrying it then I basically already am carrying it (probably my wife too?). So basically my question is, should I trust what both doctors are saying and continue worry free with my lover, or assume there is a huge risk by continuing to be intimate with my lover. Of course theres still the question where the previous lover's wife contracted it....unless of course she or her husband are dishonest and have been with others.......