This is more of a PSA, than it is a question. I've read advice on this forum that is inconsistent with my personal experience, so I thought I would share my case, to help educate and inform others.
I've been married in a monogamous hetero relationship for over a decade. I have no reason to suspect that my husband is unfaithful, and I would be very surprised to learn otherwise, but I acknowledge that anything is possible.
Anyway, I made two very big mistakes this summer. 11 weeks ago, I met a guy on a business trip, had a little too much wine, and ended up giving him a couple minutes of oral sex. I felt terrible about it, but I did not confess my infidelity to my husband, as I knew it would devastate him, and since oral is low-risk, I figured it was safe to forget and move on with intentions not to let that happen again. Fast forward to last week, it happened again, different guy, someone I know, who has allegedly been in a monogamous relationship for more than a year. About 56 hours later, my left tonsil became sore, I developed a fever, aches, chills, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, and over the next 8 hours my tonsil developed an acute infection, swelling and turning entirely white. I figured this was something coincidental, possibly viral, but I had the worry in the back of my head that the oral sex caused it. I went to urgent care at about hour 80 for an evaluation. I was tested for strep and mono, both were negative. Doctor said it was probably a virus, but prescribed augmentin just in case. My tonsillitis worsened. Fever persisted. I went back to the doctor and urged her to perform another culture. I told her about the recent sexual encounter and she dismissed it, reassuring me that chlamydia/gonorrhea oral infections are very unusual, and the timing between the exposure and onset of symptoms (2.5 days) was too short. Still, I insisted on a repeat culture, this time for c/g and also a general one to see what bacteria grew. She reluctantly performed the test. The next day she called to tell me the results were positive for chlamydia. She was shocked and said she had never seen it in her entire career. She prescribed Azithromycin and symptoms improved within 8 hours of taking my first dose of 0.5g. She instructed me to inform my partner. I told her about the first oral encounter, which was more than 80 days prior. She said it is unlikely I contracted it that long ago and had no symptoms for almost 3 months, then suddenly became so very sick. I told the most recent partner right away. He was shocked. He and girlfriend have no symptoms, which is not unusual, but claim monogamy for almost two years, which would mean that one of them had the disease when they first got together and have not known after all that time. Highly suspect. Not sure who to trust since I can't even trust myself. He has made an appointment to get tested/treated. If he is positive, he will have his girlfriend get tested/treated. There is a chance that I got it from the first guy, which means my husband could be infected too, and asymptomatic, so I will need to confess my horrible unfaithful practices, break his heart, but he can get treated. Perhaps he never contracted it from me since I have only given him brief oral sex since the first unfaithful incident. There is also a chance that my husband gave it to me. I will share the answers as this investigation unfolds, but I'm nearly certain it was the most recent oral sex act that caused my infection.