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Confused - NGU
Hello! I'm a 22-year-old gay man. About three years ago I once had unprotected anal sex (insertive) with a man older than me. I got tested for HIV and syphilis twice, about 9 and then 16 months after the incident (I know, I shouldn’t have waited for so long), and fortunately both tests came out negative. I had another relationship 4 months after that incident which lasted for two months and during that time we only had oral sex. So, that second relationship ended more than two years ago.
The first year following that incident, I had plenty of urinary problems and also pain after ejaculation. I don't remember exactly when all started, but it was not immediately after the incident, it was somewhat gradual. I've visited three urologists during these two years, and I had urine and semen cultures and urine sediment analysis done twice. Neither WBCs nor pathogens were found. I was told my symptoms were similar to those of prostatitis although no cause was found. Just in case, both times I was prescribed antibiotics (don't remember which ones) for about a week. Those urinary problems (urinary hesitancy, some dripping after urinating, urinary frequency) are gone with time, so at the moment the only symptom that still remains is that I sometimes have discomfort mainly in the penis and genital area after ejaculation that eventually goes away. The urologist that I’m currently visiting suggested that this may be a symptom of poor circulation, because a grade-II varicocele was also found in my left testicle.
Anyway, my current question is, can a bacterial STD go unnoticed for more than 2 years in a male? Three months ago I started a relationship with a guy after more than two years of sexual inactivity. The problem is, about two weeks ago I noticed a mild discharge from the tip of the penis, which turned in a quite abundant discharge the next day. I had no burning while urinating and no pain, only an awkward sensation. I visited an STD doctor the following day and because it had been more than three weeks since my last sexual encounter with that guy, she suggested it was NGU, and made a urethral swab to send to lab to perform real-time PCR. I was prescribed 1g azithromycin. I have to say that the discharge was already decreasing the day I visited the doctor, so I can’t tell if the antibiotic really made any difference. The results of the real-time PCR came out negative for N. gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma and Trichomonas. The doctor told me that, although these tests are highly specific, there’s a chance that not enough sample was taken, so that that could be a false negative.
Anyway, for prevention, she recommended that my last sex partner get tested as well, because it could still be Chlamydia. The fact that’s worrying me is that he was a virgin by the time I started dated him, so if anyone had been carrying something that would be me. By the way, we’ve only had oral sex (unprotected) for the moment. Is it possible to have an infection of Chlamydia or any of these bacteria for more than two years without noticing any symptoms (in men at least)? Are NGUs always caused by these bacteria? I guess there can be more causes, although less common.
I know Chlamydia can lay silent for a long time, but I have never had discharge or any symptom of this infection, and I visited three urologist, I assume they would have noticed it in the results of the cultures and urine sediment analysis. I’m getting quite anxious and, although I got negative results, I feel kind of guilty about the possibility of having given him something. I really would appreciate an honest answer. Thank you very much!
PD: Excuse my English, I’m not a native speaker :)
The first year following that incident, I had plenty of urinary problems and also pain after ejaculation. I don't remember exactly when all started, but it was not immediately after the incident, it was somewhat gradual. I've visited three urologists during these two years, and I had urine and semen cultures and urine sediment analysis done twice. Neither WBCs nor pathogens were found. I was told my symptoms were similar to those of prostatitis although no cause was found. Just in case, both times I was prescribed antibiotics (don't remember which ones) for about a week. Those urinary problems (urinary hesitancy, some dripping after urinating, urinary frequency) are gone with time, so at the moment the only symptom that still remains is that I sometimes have discomfort mainly in the penis and genital area after ejaculation that eventually goes away. The urologist that I’m currently visiting suggested that this may be a symptom of poor circulation, because a grade-II varicocele was also found in my left testicle.
Anyway, my current question is, can a bacterial STD go unnoticed for more than 2 years in a male? Three months ago I started a relationship with a guy after more than two years of sexual inactivity. The problem is, about two weeks ago I noticed a mild discharge from the tip of the penis, which turned in a quite abundant discharge the next day. I had no burning while urinating and no pain, only an awkward sensation. I visited an STD doctor the following day and because it had been more than three weeks since my last sexual encounter with that guy, she suggested it was NGU, and made a urethral swab to send to lab to perform real-time PCR. I was prescribed 1g azithromycin. I have to say that the discharge was already decreasing the day I visited the doctor, so I can’t tell if the antibiotic really made any difference. The results of the real-time PCR came out negative for N. gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma and Trichomonas. The doctor told me that, although these tests are highly specific, there’s a chance that not enough sample was taken, so that that could be a false negative.
Anyway, for prevention, she recommended that my last sex partner get tested as well, because it could still be Chlamydia. The fact that’s worrying me is that he was a virgin by the time I started dated him, so if anyone had been carrying something that would be me. By the way, we’ve only had oral sex (unprotected) for the moment. Is it possible to have an infection of Chlamydia or any of these bacteria for more than two years without noticing any symptoms (in men at least)? Are NGUs always caused by these bacteria? I guess there can be more causes, although less common.
I know Chlamydia can lay silent for a long time, but I have never had discharge or any symptom of this infection, and I visited three urologist, I assume they would have noticed it in the results of the cultures and urine sediment analysis. I’m getting quite anxious and, although I got negative results, I feel kind of guilty about the possibility of having given him something. I really would appreciate an honest answer. Thank you very much!
PD: Excuse my English, I’m not a native speaker :)
Thanks for your answer :) So I shouldn't worry about chlamydia then? By the way, if I had Mycoplasma or Ureaplasma or another bacteria of this kind, would 1g of azithromycin be enought to clear it?
Hola. I'll try to help. I doubt the sypmtoms you are having now are related to a 2 year old chamydia infection. Your body would have eliminated it. Anyway the test you had show you have nothing and the azytro you took would have cured it (if you would have had it). Maybe you have now NGU caused by oral bacterias from your partner's mouth. Regarding the possibility of giving him something, I would not worry. Your tests are negative and oral sex is low risk anyway. I hope it helps. Suerte!
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Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
