Welcome back to the Forum. Many questions. I'll try to address them.
There is no need to check yourself daily for recurrences- the HPV related processes just do not move that fast. typically it takes 3-6 months following an exposure for warts to become apparent on examination.
Our usual advice is that if there is no visible recurrence 3 months following resolution/removal of warts, that persons should consider themselves no longer infections. In your case, there has already been some non penetrative contact and you have been aggressively treated. With use of condoms at this time there should be little risk that you will infect your partner. (A 3 week incubation period for development of warts would be unusually fast).
Most people clear PAP smear abnormalities 18-24 months after they are detected. these estimates however are just that- approximations. They do not take into account how long the infection was present before detection although in the best studies patients were followed for acquisition and then resolution of infection. the 18-24 month estimate remains a useful guideline.
Warts and other viral infections have been spread from person to person through shaving over them. Thus, if you have warts present (you indicate that you do not so this is a bit of a "what if" question), shaving would not be advisable. I have no experience or data with either waxing or laser hair removal but would expect them to be less likely to spread the infection.
I hope this helps. Many of the questions and considerations, as before, are things you should be discussing with the doctor who treated you. EWH
Thanks for your reply. If I'm understanding you correctly, he was technically exposed already even though the contact was 3 weeks before I saw the first lesion? Is it true that it is harder for mento catch this from women because their skin is not stretched, torn, etc during sex? Last question, what are the risks of transmission to him from unprotected oral sec with no lesions? Talking to my doctor is like trying to talk to the pope unfortunately. I'm dealing with a well known large teaching hospital so she's not really available for my questions so thanks for your time.
Your pope comment brought a smile to my face- there's a new one (pope that is) you know :).
Addressing your questions:
1. He was technically exposed already even though the contact was 3 weeks before I saw the first lesion?
2. Is it true that it is harder for men to catch this from women because their skin is not stretched, torn, etc during sex?
Again, yes. Infections are also probably more likely to resolve in men. Reason for this include the friction and abrasion which is a normal part of sex but also includes anatomic differences. The female genital tract is designed to retain secretions and has difference sorts of skin surfaces than males do.
3. Last question, what are the risks of transmission to him from unprotected oral sec with no lesions?
This is a subject of debate. The internet and media are full of anxiety inducing concerns about oral HPV and oral cancer. There is a risk but we both (on this forum) believe that the concerns are overblown. I urge you not worry about the risk of oral sex and let it hamper a healthy sexual relationship with your partner.
I hope thse comments are helpful. EWH
Glad my comment made you smile! & I know you will have to this thread but my final question is, since its been 17 weeks since his exposure & no lesions, is it safe to say he didn't catch anything or that if he did, it resolved?
Yes, time for you to move forward and not be concerned. Take care. EWH