Aa
hpv/laser ablation
Hi,
It had been 5 weeks since my laser ablation surgery. They initially told me i had VIN but after surgery, they said they only saw condyloma. The doc told me they got all obvious lesions and also the ones that hadn't popped up yet. She said they were very through and didn't expect recurrence for a long time if ever because it takes a long time for new lesions to pop up. I check myself daily and haven't seen any new lesions when prior to surgery, there were new ones each week.
I would like to become sexually active with a new partner, the one that I referenced in my previous question (we shared genital to genital contact but no intercourse)
My questions are as follows: what is the likelihood of transmission to the new partner with no active lesions & condom use? Was he already exposed because of the skin to skin contact that occurred 3 weeks prior to the appearance of the first lesion? Is it at all possible he was the source (I've read incubation periods of 3 weeks)?
Also when its stated that most people clear hpv in a year, is that a year from the infection date, or a year from the appearance of the lesion? Technically I was infected last summer so i was wondering if future breakouts are less likely because more time had passed? Disclosure isn't an option by the way for many reasons, mostly cultural.
Also, I would desperately like to remove hair from my pubic area as I am not used to keeping any hair down there! But I am afraid of possibly spreading whatever hpv virus may remain throughout my genital area...is shaving safe? Waxing? Thank you for your time ( please refer to my previous question for background info)
It had been 5 weeks since my laser ablation surgery. They initially told me i had VIN but after surgery, they said they only saw condyloma. The doc told me they got all obvious lesions and also the ones that hadn't popped up yet. She said they were very through and didn't expect recurrence for a long time if ever because it takes a long time for new lesions to pop up. I check myself daily and haven't seen any new lesions when prior to surgery, there were new ones each week.
I would like to become sexually active with a new partner, the one that I referenced in my previous question (we shared genital to genital contact but no intercourse)
My questions are as follows: what is the likelihood of transmission to the new partner with no active lesions & condom use? Was he already exposed because of the skin to skin contact that occurred 3 weeks prior to the appearance of the first lesion? Is it at all possible he was the source (I've read incubation periods of 3 weeks)?
Also when its stated that most people clear hpv in a year, is that a year from the infection date, or a year from the appearance of the lesion? Technically I was infected last summer so i was wondering if future breakouts are less likely because more time had passed? Disclosure isn't an option by the way for many reasons, mostly cultural.
Also, I would desperately like to remove hair from my pubic area as I am not used to keeping any hair down there! But I am afraid of possibly spreading whatever hpv virus may remain throughout my genital area...is shaving safe? Waxing? Thank you for your time ( please refer to my previous question for background info)
Thanks!
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Yes, time for you to move forward and not be concerned. Take care. EWH
Glad my comment made you smile! & I know you will have to this thread but my final question is, since its been 17 weeks since his exposure & no lesions, is it safe to say he didn't catch anything or that if he did, it resolved?
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Your pope comment brought a smile to my face- there's a new one (pope that is) you know :).
Addressing your questions:
1. He was technically exposed already even though the contact was 3 weeks before I saw the first lesion?
Yes.
2. Is it true that it is harder for men to catch this from women because their skin is not stretched, torn, etc during sex?
Again, yes. Infections are also probably more likely to resolve in men. Reason for this include the friction and abrasion which is a normal part of sex but also includes anatomic differences. The female genital tract is designed to retain secretions and has difference sorts of skin surfaces than males do.
3. Last question, what are the risks of transmission to him from unprotected oral sec with no lesions?
This is a subject of debate. The internet and media are full of anxiety inducing concerns about oral HPV and oral cancer. There is a risk but we both (on this forum) believe that the concerns are overblown. I urge you not worry about the risk of oral sex and let it hamper a healthy sexual relationship with your partner.
I hope thse comments are helpful. EWH
Addressing your questions:
1. He was technically exposed already even though the contact was 3 weeks before I saw the first lesion?
Yes.
2. Is it true that it is harder for men to catch this from women because their skin is not stretched, torn, etc during sex?
Again, yes. Infections are also probably more likely to resolve in men. Reason for this include the friction and abrasion which is a normal part of sex but also includes anatomic differences. The female genital tract is designed to retain secretions and has difference sorts of skin surfaces than males do.
3. Last question, what are the risks of transmission to him from unprotected oral sec with no lesions?
This is a subject of debate. The internet and media are full of anxiety inducing concerns about oral HPV and oral cancer. There is a risk but we both (on this forum) believe that the concerns are overblown. I urge you not worry about the risk of oral sex and let it hamper a healthy sexual relationship with your partner.
I hope thse comments are helpful. EWH
Thanks for your reply. If I'm understanding you correctly, he was technically exposed already even though the contact was 3 weeks before I saw the first lesion? Is it true that it is harder for mento catch this from women because their skin is not stretched, torn, etc during sex? Last question, what are the risks of transmission to him from unprotected oral sec with no lesions? Talking to my doctor is like trying to talk to the pope unfortunately. I'm dealing with a well known large teaching hospital so she's not really available for my questions so thanks for your time.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome back to the Forum. Many questions. I'll try to address them.
There is no need to check yourself daily for recurrences- the HPV related processes just do not move that fast. typically it takes 3-6 months following an exposure for warts to become apparent on examination.
Our usual advice is that if there is no visible recurrence 3 months following resolution/removal of warts, that persons should consider themselves no longer infections. In your case, there has already been some non penetrative contact and you have been aggressively treated. With use of condoms at this time there should be little risk that you will infect your partner. (A 3 week incubation period for development of warts would be unusually fast).
Most people clear PAP smear abnormalities 18-24 months after they are detected. these estimates however are just that- approximations. They do not take into account how long the infection was present before detection although in the best studies patients were followed for acquisition and then resolution of infection. the 18-24 month estimate remains a useful guideline.
Warts and other viral infections have been spread from person to person through shaving over them. Thus, if you have warts present (you indicate that you do not so this is a bit of a "what if" question), shaving would not be advisable. I have no experience or data with either waxing or laser hair removal but would expect them to be less likely to spread the infection.
I hope this helps. Many of the questions and considerations, as before, are things you should be discussing with the doctor who treated you. EWH
There is no need to check yourself daily for recurrences- the HPV related processes just do not move that fast. typically it takes 3-6 months following an exposure for warts to become apparent on examination.
Our usual advice is that if there is no visible recurrence 3 months following resolution/removal of warts, that persons should consider themselves no longer infections. In your case, there has already been some non penetrative contact and you have been aggressively treated. With use of condoms at this time there should be little risk that you will infect your partner. (A 3 week incubation period for development of warts would be unusually fast).
Most people clear PAP smear abnormalities 18-24 months after they are detected. these estimates however are just that- approximations. They do not take into account how long the infection was present before detection although in the best studies patients were followed for acquisition and then resolution of infection. the 18-24 month estimate remains a useful guideline.
Warts and other viral infections have been spread from person to person through shaving over them. Thus, if you have warts present (you indicate that you do not so this is a bit of a "what if" question), shaving would not be advisable. I have no experience or data with either waxing or laser hair removal but would expect them to be less likely to spread the infection.
I hope this helps. Many of the questions and considerations, as before, are things you should be discussing with the doctor who treated you. EWH
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
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