Aa
Penile curvature + ED: young, fit male...wth??
I want to see the community and professional medical feedback on the following:
If a male had a penile curvature so severe, where it literally is just going downwards, only semi-hard (undiagnosed peyronies perhaps?), in addition to ED, and no penetration strength erections, ***would you believe him if he says that he never had any performance issues in previous relationships with this same condition??
Well, here's the next relationship and he's acting like this is normal. Never has there been a penetration strength erection, and even if there were, the curvature is so severe that it's almost physically impossible to penetrate. The male in question is 30 years old, is athletic and in good health, all bloodwork and hormone levels are normal/average. And there are no underlying psychological issues. He says that he's been like this for as long as he remembers. His general practitioner has not even referred him to see a urologist or suggest further intervention or medications yet.
Is there any possible way that a male in his condition would think this situation to be normal and then claim he's not had any intimacy problems with a previous partner?? And obviously, he needs to see a urologist ASAP.
Comments, suggestions? Thank you.
If a male had a penile curvature so severe, where it literally is just going downwards, only semi-hard (undiagnosed peyronies perhaps?), in addition to ED, and no penetration strength erections, ***would you believe him if he says that he never had any performance issues in previous relationships with this same condition??
Well, here's the next relationship and he's acting like this is normal. Never has there been a penetration strength erection, and even if there were, the curvature is so severe that it's almost physically impossible to penetrate. The male in question is 30 years old, is athletic and in good health, all bloodwork and hormone levels are normal/average. And there are no underlying psychological issues. He says that he's been like this for as long as he remembers. His general practitioner has not even referred him to see a urologist or suggest further intervention or medications yet.
Is there any possible way that a male in his condition would think this situation to be normal and then claim he's not had any intimacy problems with a previous partner?? And obviously, he needs to see a urologist ASAP.
Comments, suggestions? Thank you.
You're basically asking an online forum of strangers whether this person is lying or not. We have no way of knowing.
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