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Risk of HSV from Handjob?

Hi,

I am coming here for advice due to experiencing symptoms constantly for the past 6 weeks, following my last sexual encounter. My encounter involved me receiving a handjob with lube from a masseuse, who was naked. However, it was strictly her hand on my Penis. There was no genital to genital contact, no oral to genital contact, and no genital to anal contact. My symptoms started about 2 days after the encounter.

The symptoms I've been having are a constant burning feeling in my Penis/urethra, and it happens all day everyday. Additionally, I have had redness/inflammation of my glans and foreskin. However, I have not had any visible sores/lesions, no pain with urination, and no discharge. My urine does contain white blood cells, but urine Culture was negative for bacteria.

I have tested for Chlamydia, gonnareah, syphilis, and HIV, which were all negative.

My question is, is it possible that I contracted genital herpes from my encounter? Should I be tested?
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207091 tn?1337709493
COMMUNITY LEADER
You had no risk for any STD here, and have no need to test for herpes.

There is something called herpetic whitlow, which is herpes of the hand, but it is uncommon, painful and obvious. If she had it, you'd have seen it and she wouldn't be giving handjobs with that hand.

How many WBCs did they find in your urine? Even without bacteria, if you have a large enough number of WBCs, they'll call it urethritis and treat it. You can get that from oil or something getting into the urethra and causing irritation.

This is not an STD from this encounter. You had no risk, and you have tested negative.
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I appreciate your reply! I did test negative for the STDs mentioned above, but did not test for others such as Mycoplasma Genatalium, Ureaplasma, Trich, and Herpes. Do you recommend I test for these too as I am very much symptomatic?

Wbc found said 15 WBC/uL. I am seeing my doctor later today to see what he thinks of these results.

I also agree that there would be no STD risk in this encounter, but my 43 days of consistent symptoms are leading me down a dark, anxious path...

Looking forward to your reply!
You aren't at risk for any of those STDs from a handjob.

You should be treated at 15 WBC.

https://bestpractice.bmj.com/topics/en-us/54

https://www.cdc.gov/std/treatment-guidelines/urethritis-and-cervicitis.htm

Have you had any other encounters with anyone else? A regular partner? Urethritis can be caused by many bacteria, including bacteria that is normally found in the mouth, vagina or anus.
Only 1 other partner ever. But have not had sex or any other sexual encounter since before the handjob, which is another reason as to why I believe my symptoms MUST have come from the handjob. Like logically thinking, what else could have caused them?

Additionally, would you be able to explain why I am not at risk for any STD, including herpes? Is it because hands do not have mucous membranes?
Well, it could have come from the handjob - was lube or oil used? That could have gotten into your urethra and caused an infection.

It could also be a prostate issue, or something else entirely.

Here are some links from our experts, when we had them, on why hands don't transmit STDs -

https://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/Nervous-about-mutual-masturbation/show/2183476

https://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/Mutual-Masturbation-STD/show/1968429

https://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/mutual-masturbation-sti/show/1858544

https://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/Understanding-the-risks-of-mutual-fingering/show/1516796

https://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV---Prevention/Vaginal-fluid-on-hand-touched-inside-of-condom-and-head-of-penis/show/1119533 - read this thread thoroughly. There is an excellent explanation about why certain activities are not risks, and why others are.
Yes, some sort of lube was used. It is possible that it got into my urethra, but then again, I'm having a hard time understanding how the symptoms would last this long.

But thank you so much for your help. My main concern was this being HSV or another STD, but if I am understanding your original response and the links you posted above correctly, HSV or any other STD would not be possible from this encounter?
So I just also wanted to provide a quick update after I just saw my doctor - I guess I wasn't interpreting the urine test results completely accurately

So he said that although the initial urine dipstick showed WBC, when the results were cultured, the result for WBC was negative. Therefore, he assured me that I did not have WBC in my urine and that I certainly did not have an infection.

His advice was that since these symptoms have been going on for so long, without a positive test result for any infection (STI and general bacterial), he was not going to prescribe me with any antibiotics as there is no reason to take them without a positive result. He advised to drink alot of water and continue monitoring for any significant changes, but not to excessively monitor as chances are this will resolve on its own.

I guess my question is, is his explanation for the WBC accurate? I saw the rest result on his computer that said WBC negative, but I also saw that Leukocyte esterase said "15", which is what I saw on my initial report. However he said that that's just the results from the dipstick, and that the culture proved that WBC (and everything else tested) was negative.

Thanks in advance!!
Could you have seen a 1.5? On a dipstick, it usually is a 1+, 2+, 3+.

Ultimately, the urine culture is far more accurate than a dipstick.

So now you do what he says. Drink lots of water, look for changes. If you drink a lot of caffeine, cut back on that, and alcohol.

Give it a few weeks of honest trying. See how it goes.
Would you say that I am safe to resume unprotected sex with my regular partner?
Yes, you had no risk for any STDs from this encounter.
I just want to say thank you so much. It really helps to have a knowledgeable opinion. The work you do on this site is amazing and very helpful!
You're welcome, and thanks for the really sweet words. :)
Hey AJ,

I know I said in a different post (on the STI forum) that I was going to try my best to accept the fact that handjobs are NO RISK for ANY STD, and I have been, I just have one more hypothetical question that I hope you could help with just for general knowledge:

So we have addressed the fact that handjobs, even when genital fluids are present and used, are no risk for any STD.

However, using HSV specifically as an example, would this also apply to a situation where an individual that has an active genital herpes outbreak, touches their active herpes lesion and gets herpes fluid on their hands, and then immediately gives another individual a handjob? Is this still considered a no risk encounter?

My question is focusing on whether there is a difference between vaginal fluids, and fluids that come directly from active herpes lesions. I am assuming that there would not be enough fluid and virus on the hands even if an active herpes lesion was touched and then a handjob was given to transmit the virus, but I am looking forward to your response nonetheless :).

Thanks in advance!
Jasonmerz88, your question has already thoughtfully and fully been answered that it isn't a risk. We wish you well.

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