I don't accept the premise, and I generally refuse to counsel people--either on this forum or in the clinic--on the basis of unrealistic assumptions. But if either of your partners had HIV, then you must have a repeat test at 3 months to be confident you aren't infected. But if the chance your partners were infected was low (which it probably was), you do not need further testing. If you're wondering why the difference, see any number of other discussions on this forum; the latest was in a thread just yesterday (
http://www.medhelp.org/forums/hiv/messages/1108.html).
Negative rapid tests (OraQuick and others) are just as reliable as laboratory-based tests.
Good luck-- HHH, MD
i forgot to add that i am female, non drug user... possible exposures were with the same male, and it is unknown if he is a drug user. both instances were vaginal sex where the male did ejaulate inside of me. ... the specific dates are unknown but were definatly before the april 13 and the test was done on june 6
before april 13, but after april 1.........
sorry nerveous and leaving out information that may be realevant
The additional information suggests that your original assumption probably is untrue. If your partners also were not gay/bisexual, not previously imprisoned, and not immigrants from areas with high rates of HIV, then you do not need further testing (and likely didn't need HIV testing at all). I hope you were also tested for common STDs, like chlamydia and gonorrhea; those risks may have been substantial, even if the HIV risk was trivial.
HHH, MD
Thank you.
i read up more and saw that the test are pretty accurate.
Does this mean that even if there was a good chance the person were infected that the negative test around 9 weeks was probably good?