Hello Doctor and thank your for your daily dedication and invaluable advice for those of us who read your forum!
Background information for this incident:
10 AUG 07: I’m an American heterosexual male. I was in Phuket Thailand and went back to my room with a female who I met at a night club. I’m positive she was a sex worker as she asked me for money after our sexual encounter. When we arrived to my room she asked if I had a condom and I said no. She then called to the front desk and had condoms delivered to the room. We began by having protected vaginal sex for about 5 minutes. Then, for some reason she removed the condom and I continued to have sex with her for about an additional 5 minutes until I ejaculated. I forget whether it was in her or not. That was the only sexual contact I had with her. Immediately following that, I took a shower and cleaned myself thoroughly. She never asked if I had any STDs nor did I ask her. Two weeks later I had tests for Syphilis, Gonorrhea, and Chlamydia done. All were negative.
10 OCT 07 (61 days after the incident): I went to a HIV clinic and had the OraQuick ADVANCE Rapid HIV-1/2 Antibody test done (oral version). Came back as “negative”.
16 OCT 07 (67 days after the incident): I had a blood test done (ELISA). I later found out they only tested me for HIV -1 AB. Came back “negative”.
I was researching today and found that HIV-1 CRF A / E is most common in South-east Asia (including Thailand where I had the encounter).
My questions
1.Would the OraQuick test I took be able to identify HIV-1 CRF A / E?
2.Would the ELISA blood test I took be able to identify HIV-1 CRF A / E?
3.What do you think my risk to HIV was from having the exposure that I did?
4.What is my next step, if any concerning this situation?
After learning about the different subtypes and the testing I had, I’m concerned and a little stressed that my tests are not as accurate as I initially thought. Thank you for your help!