Aa
HIV?
I have been dating the same woman (woman A) for a years. Our sexual contact has always been exclusively unprotected oral sex. While I do ejaculate in her mouth, she has never swallowed. While we have never had intercourse, our genitals do come in contact at times. She says she's a virgin, and I believe her.
I tested negative for HIV while giving blood in October 2007.
Since then I have become sexually involved with another woman (woman B) as well.
The sex has been unprotected and includes vaginal, oral & anal. Woman B says she tested negative for HIV in August 2007, and has not engaged in any risky behavior, such as sex without a condom since, before getting involved with me.
I am currently involved with both women.
Early after beginning my relationship with woman B, I received oral sex from woman A. About a week later, she had a horrible sore throat, with white marks on her tonsils, and she was generally just really sick. She sought medical help, but because I am not as forthcoming as I could be, she didn't test for HIV. She was prescribed an antibiotic (I don't know which). One of the possible side effects of this drug was hives, which she ended up getting I think a few days after starting. She was switched to a different antiotic, and the problem went away.
Later woman A performed oral sex on me without incident. Weeks later, she performed oral sex on me again, and few days later had a sore throat (not nearly as severe) and she noticed a white spot on one of her tonsils. This seems to have gone away on its own after a day.
I don't know if the timing of this is coincidental or what.
Is HIV the cause of this?
,
I tested negative for HIV while giving blood in October 2007.
Since then I have become sexually involved with another woman (woman B) as well.
The sex has been unprotected and includes vaginal, oral & anal. Woman B says she tested negative for HIV in August 2007, and has not engaged in any risky behavior, such as sex without a condom since, before getting involved with me.
I am currently involved with both women.
Early after beginning my relationship with woman B, I received oral sex from woman A. About a week later, she had a horrible sore throat, with white marks on her tonsils, and she was generally just really sick. She sought medical help, but because I am not as forthcoming as I could be, she didn't test for HIV. She was prescribed an antibiotic (I don't know which). One of the possible side effects of this drug was hives, which she ended up getting I think a few days after starting. She was switched to a different antiotic, and the problem went away.
Later woman A performed oral sex on me without incident. Weeks later, she performed oral sex on me again, and few days later had a sore throat (not nearly as severe) and she noticed a white spot on one of her tonsils. This seems to have gone away on its own after a day.
I don't know if the timing of this is coincidental or what.
Is HIV the cause of this?
,
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
The other site is the STD Forum, you can click on it at the Related Expert Forum Bar at the top of the post.
I'm not as much characterizing vaginal or anal sex as low risk as I am your partner. she has a negative HIV test in August and has not engaged in risky behavior since then. Sex acts associated with higher risk become low risk when your partner does not have HIV and from what I infer, partner B is quite unlikely to have HIV.
You can search this and the STD forum for many posts on the issue of whether genital contact with hands which may have some genital secretions on them is likely to result in transmission. When you do, you'll see that the answer is no, it doesn't. The risk is very, very low, probably even lower than for oral sex - i.e. it is safe.
Asymptomatic STDs of the throat. They are. Practically speaking, the only exception would be herpes. GC is nearly always asymptomatic in the throat and chlamydia doesn't infect it.
Timing of partner A's throat infections, as I said earlier, was asymtpomatic.
EWH
I'm not as much characterizing vaginal or anal sex as low risk as I am your partner. she has a negative HIV test in August and has not engaged in risky behavior since then. Sex acts associated with higher risk become low risk when your partner does not have HIV and from what I infer, partner B is quite unlikely to have HIV.
You can search this and the STD forum for many posts on the issue of whether genital contact with hands which may have some genital secretions on them is likely to result in transmission. When you do, you'll see that the answer is no, it doesn't. The risk is very, very low, probably even lower than for oral sex - i.e. it is safe.
Asymptomatic STDs of the throat. They are. Practically speaking, the only exception would be herpes. GC is nearly always asymptomatic in the throat and chlamydia doesn't infect it.
Timing of partner A's throat infections, as I said earlier, was asymtpomatic.
EWH
Will this be responded to?
Tested negative for HIV 10 weeks after Woman A got sick.
Should I consider this case closed?
I've been very concerned because the doctors she saw didn't really tell her what was wrong, (they speculated mononucleosis, but never confirmed it) and she hasn't gained back the weight she lost while she was sick.
Should I consider this case closed?
I've been very concerned because the doctors she saw didn't really tell her what was wrong, (they speculated mononucleosis, but never confirmed it) and she hasn't gained back the weight she lost while she was sick.
I just spoke with woman A.
She says early in her sickness she had a fever.
Her hives (which came on after she started taking antibiotics which listed hives as a possible side effect, so she assumes that's where they came from) were on her arms, upper chest & thighs and it was itchy.
She says early in her sickness she had a fever.
Her hives (which came on after she started taking antibiotics which listed hives as a possible side effect, so she assumes that's where they came from) were on her arms, upper chest & thighs and it was itchy.
I hate to be one of the "yeah but" folks on this site, but... here we are.
Something I for some reason neglected to mention...
Woman A has also lost some weight since getting sick. She attributes this to not eating much while she was sick, and then eating a lot of soup since then.
Do you think this weight loss should cause me concern?
Something I for some reason neglected to mention...
Woman A has also lost some weight since getting sick. She attributes this to not eating much while she was sick, and then eating a lot of soup since then.
Do you think this weight loss should cause me concern?
OK, I located it. Thank you for being flexible.
Let me just clarify some things for my own piece of mind, if I may.
I did test negative in October 2007, but have engaged in what I THOUGHT was risky behavior with woman B since that test. I've heard that oral (either giving or receiving) is very low risk. And I know that there's less risk to man in the cases of unprotected vaginal sex and unprotected insertive anal sex. But you're characterizing all of these as low-risk? That's not a challenge, doctor. Just a question, to make sure we're on the same page here.
Also... while no PENETRATION has taken place between woman A and me, there HAS been SOME genital contact between us. I'm sure I've had SOME amount of semen or preseminal fluid on my hand while in contact with her vagina. I would imagine that inserting fingers into her vagina with these things possible on my hand would present some risk.
With this mind, you feel that the timing of sicknesses was just coincidental?
Also could you elaborate on this statement?
"Most STDs infected the throat are asymptomatic".
Unless you have further questions for me, I'm fairly certain this will be my last post on the subject, so let me thank you in advance for your advice.
Let me just clarify some things for my own piece of mind, if I may.
I did test negative in October 2007, but have engaged in what I THOUGHT was risky behavior with woman B since that test. I've heard that oral (either giving or receiving) is very low risk. And I know that there's less risk to man in the cases of unprotected vaginal sex and unprotected insertive anal sex. But you're characterizing all of these as low-risk? That's not a challenge, doctor. Just a question, to make sure we're on the same page here.
Also... while no PENETRATION has taken place between woman A and me, there HAS been SOME genital contact between us. I'm sure I've had SOME amount of semen or preseminal fluid on my hand while in contact with her vagina. I would imagine that inserting fingers into her vagina with these things possible on my hand would present some risk.
With this mind, you feel that the timing of sicknesses was just coincidental?
Also could you elaborate on this statement?
"Most STDs infected the throat are asymptomatic".
Unless you have further questions for me, I'm fairly certain this will be my last post on the subject, so let me thank you in advance for your advice.
Other site?
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Answered on the other site. EWH
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