Aa
gonorrhea question
Hi dr's,
I feel dumb for again putting myself in this type of situation.
2 days ago on a business trip I met up with an escort of asian descent in her 20s. She performed unprotected oral on me for about 5 minutes and finished with a handjob.
After everything Ive learned here and by practicing as safe as I could in the past im ashamed that after a few beers I allowed the oral to go unprotected...things just happened fast.
I know chances for hiv are close to 0. chlamydia is basically 0. She had no visable sores on mouth which can basically rule out hsv and syph.
I have also learned the most common infections are ngu and gonorrhea. However its been stated that gonorrhea infections are rare or uncommon in general and oral sex is a ineffective way to transmit but it does happen.
I was hoping you can go a little more into detail about how uncommon this is. In your experience how often do you see cases of penile gonorrhea being acquired by oral come in your clinic.
cdc says over 300k+ new cases of gonorrhea are reported each year but I assume thats lumping all together so they really dont say (and I know they have know way of truly knowing) how each transmission was acquired but can you give a ball park estimate as to how many infections are done via oral based on what you have seen over the years? I assume its easier for the receptive partner to acquire gonorrhea then the insertive (for oral of course) but how efficiently does it pass from throat to penis? Due to my beer consumption I urinated very shortly after the exposure occurred. I never heard anything about this but will urinating after ejaculation decrease chance of infection (this may be a 3rd grade question) but I was just curious if it helps flush the bacteria out. in a nutshell I read "rare" and "uncommon" and was just hoping you can give some insight as to how rare or uncommon this disease passes from an exposure like mine
thank you
I feel dumb for again putting myself in this type of situation.
2 days ago on a business trip I met up with an escort of asian descent in her 20s. She performed unprotected oral on me for about 5 minutes and finished with a handjob.
After everything Ive learned here and by practicing as safe as I could in the past im ashamed that after a few beers I allowed the oral to go unprotected...things just happened fast.
I know chances for hiv are close to 0. chlamydia is basically 0. She had no visable sores on mouth which can basically rule out hsv and syph.
I have also learned the most common infections are ngu and gonorrhea. However its been stated that gonorrhea infections are rare or uncommon in general and oral sex is a ineffective way to transmit but it does happen.
I was hoping you can go a little more into detail about how uncommon this is. In your experience how often do you see cases of penile gonorrhea being acquired by oral come in your clinic.
cdc says over 300k+ new cases of gonorrhea are reported each year but I assume thats lumping all together so they really dont say (and I know they have know way of truly knowing) how each transmission was acquired but can you give a ball park estimate as to how many infections are done via oral based on what you have seen over the years? I assume its easier for the receptive partner to acquire gonorrhea then the insertive (for oral of course) but how efficiently does it pass from throat to penis? Due to my beer consumption I urinated very shortly after the exposure occurred. I never heard anything about this but will urinating after ejaculation decrease chance of infection (this may be a 3rd grade question) but I was just curious if it helps flush the bacteria out. in a nutshell I read "rare" and "uncommon" and was just hoping you can give some insight as to how rare or uncommon this disease passes from an exposure like mine
thank you
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Thanks for the thanks. Take care.
thank you dr as always your response was always informative.
I was unaware of the post limit....These days im sad to say ive become pretty numb when it comes to "terms and conditions" and pretty much just click ok....but knowing that now I will respect the question limit although now that my 3 total questions have pretty much covered all bases I feel no further info will be needed in the future....at least I hope so.
Thanks again for all of your help, keep up the great work and have a great holiday. I mean this in the most respective way possible and hope you understand what I mean when I say I hope this is the last time we speak lol
take care
I was unaware of the post limit....These days im sad to say ive become pretty numb when it comes to "terms and conditions" and pretty much just click ok....but knowing that now I will respect the question limit although now that my 3 total questions have pretty much covered all bases I feel no further info will be needed in the future....at least I hope so.
Thanks again for all of your help, keep up the great work and have a great holiday. I mean this in the most respective way possible and hope you understand what I mean when I say I hope this is the last time we speak lol
take care
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome back to the forum.
As before, you are asking questions without clear answers. As Dr. Hook explained a few weeks ago, it isn't always easy to extrapolate the available epidemiologic data to individual exposures. To answer your specific questions:
1) Yes, gonorrhea of the throat is more readily acquired by oral sex than transmission in the opposite direction. Yet despite the frequency of oral sex, oral gonorrhea accounts for only 1-2% of all reported cases.
2) Of the roughly 300,000 reported cases of gonorrhea each per year, 80% of those occur in minority populations or gay men, primarily in limited geographic areas (in some counties nationwide there is virtually no gonorrhea at all). I would guess that under 5% of those cases (6,000 cases) were acquired by oral to genital sex, and most of these probably were in gay men. The couple thousand remaining cases in heterosexual men probably occurred in the context of millions and millions of episodes of oral sex received by those men. In other words, the risk of infection is exceedingly low for any single exposure such as yours. On top of all that, over 90% of urethral gonorrhea in men causes obvious symptoms (pus dripping from the penis, painful urination). Absence of those symptoms within a few days of exposure, all by itself, is strong reassurance in regard to gonorrhea.
3) Urination after sex is a time-honored recommendation, but nobody knows if it makes any difference in risk. My guess is not. Research has shown that gonorrhea bacteria surface is coated with "sticky" proteins that help them adhere to the types of cells that line the urethra.
I hope this has helped. And by the way, please be aware that MedHelp policy permits a maximum of 2 questions every 6 months on each of the professionally moderated forums (see Terms and Conditions), in order to prevent domination of the forums by a few users with anxiety-based questions. You're sort of on the edge, since this is your third question since last July. Your questions have not been unreasonable, but I'm going to ask you to hold off on new questions on this forum before next summer.
Best wishes-- HHH, MD
As before, you are asking questions without clear answers. As Dr. Hook explained a few weeks ago, it isn't always easy to extrapolate the available epidemiologic data to individual exposures. To answer your specific questions:
1) Yes, gonorrhea of the throat is more readily acquired by oral sex than transmission in the opposite direction. Yet despite the frequency of oral sex, oral gonorrhea accounts for only 1-2% of all reported cases.
2) Of the roughly 300,000 reported cases of gonorrhea each per year, 80% of those occur in minority populations or gay men, primarily in limited geographic areas (in some counties nationwide there is virtually no gonorrhea at all). I would guess that under 5% of those cases (6,000 cases) were acquired by oral to genital sex, and most of these probably were in gay men. The couple thousand remaining cases in heterosexual men probably occurred in the context of millions and millions of episodes of oral sex received by those men. In other words, the risk of infection is exceedingly low for any single exposure such as yours. On top of all that, over 90% of urethral gonorrhea in men causes obvious symptoms (pus dripping from the penis, painful urination). Absence of those symptoms within a few days of exposure, all by itself, is strong reassurance in regard to gonorrhea.
3) Urination after sex is a time-honored recommendation, but nobody knows if it makes any difference in risk. My guess is not. Research has shown that gonorrhea bacteria surface is coated with "sticky" proteins that help them adhere to the types of cells that line the urethra.
I hope this has helped. And by the way, please be aware that MedHelp policy permits a maximum of 2 questions every 6 months on each of the professionally moderated forums (see Terms and Conditions), in order to prevent domination of the forums by a few users with anxiety-based questions. You're sort of on the edge, since this is your third question since last July. Your questions have not been unreasonable, but I'm going to ask you to hold off on new questions on this forum before next summer.
Best wishes-- HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
