Dear Sir,
I don't seem to get the following figured out with my GP.
A few days after having unprotected sex (unwisely), I had severe, yellow penile discharge and I immediately suspected an STD. I went to my doctor, but because symptoms were severe she decided to give me treatment right away. Not knowing whether it was gonnorhea/chlamydia or perhaps something else, I was treated with azythromycin 1 g / cefixim 400 mg, after which the yellow discharge disappeared within a day. I also performed a urine test after two weeks, which showed no chlamydia, gonnorhea. It is now of course unsure if I had one of these from the beginning.
A very subtle, clear discharge remained after treatment, which I had never experienced before the whole event. I expected that it might be some damage that would repair over time. Confident that I was fine, and with negative test result, I had unprotected sex with someone who also knew that she had no STD's (we talked about this). After a week, I hear from her that she was suffering from what she called "bladder infection". I was very much afraid that somehow I caused this.
After this experience, and because the subtle discharge persisted over weeks, I went for another, more elaborate test. My urine was tested again for chlamydia, gonnorhea but also for the presence bacteria in general and mycoplasma genitalium. Nothing was found again.
Three weeks after the last test, I found a 10x5mm lump in my scrotum, attached to the soft mass, which is attached to the testis (some vessels or the epidydimus). I used a light to shine through it and it was transparent, so maybe a cyst from some damage/inflammation? I will have an ultrasound soon.
Also, I have intensified, but still subtle, cloudy discharge.
The question I have is: Is this related to my infection before? My doctor denies this, since nothing showed up in the urine tests. Can you bring all this together or are the events unrelated?