Aa
Follow-up
Hi,
SInce my initial post, I've continued to have symptoms. Burning, itching, pain and skin sensitivity around the head of the penis. My primary referred me to a dermatologist who thought that the skin looked normal and thought that my symptoms were psychosomatic. Fair enough, but I've continued to be in pain (it's now 3 months).
Yesterday, I went to an STD clinic where the internist did a prostate massage which caused discharge to be expressed. There were no white cells or bacteria under the microscope. She thinks that I have prostatitis and is putting me on ofloxacin. SHe also drew a Herpes test because she feels that so many people have it and don't know that it is a good screening measure. The test came back positive for both Heres 1 and 2. She states that she thinks that it is unlikely that I contracted it from a hand to genital contact and that I likely have had this since before my marriage. Also, she thinks that my current symptoms are more likely referred pain from the prostate and not herpes related. I guess that my question is whether this sounds reasonable. SHe suggested that m wife should be tested to revent transmission in the event that she is not yet infected. Any feedback is appreciated.
SInce my initial post, I've continued to have symptoms. Burning, itching, pain and skin sensitivity around the head of the penis. My primary referred me to a dermatologist who thought that the skin looked normal and thought that my symptoms were psychosomatic. Fair enough, but I've continued to be in pain (it's now 3 months).
Yesterday, I went to an STD clinic where the internist did a prostate massage which caused discharge to be expressed. There were no white cells or bacteria under the microscope. She thinks that I have prostatitis and is putting me on ofloxacin. SHe also drew a Herpes test because she feels that so many people have it and don't know that it is a good screening measure. The test came back positive for both Heres 1 and 2. She states that she thinks that it is unlikely that I contracted it from a hand to genital contact and that I likely have had this since before my marriage. Also, she thinks that my current symptoms are more likely referred pain from the prostate and not herpes related. I guess that my question is whether this sounds reasonable. SHe suggested that m wife should be tested to revent transmission in the event that she is not yet infected. Any feedback is appreciated.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Yes it is possible you have had HSV-2 for 16+ years without knowing it. But it is also possible your positive test is false. In order to interpret your test result, more information is necessary, i.e. the exact numerical valuues of your HerpeSelect tests for both HSV-1 and HSV-2. Here is a thread that explains why: http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/IGG-Test-Result-Confusion/show/593272
I did not say your symptoms are psychosomatic, only that they are not caused by any STD. They definitely are not caused by herpes, regardless of your test result. In other words, if your HSV-2 blood test is truly positive, then you have asymptomatic genital herpes plus another cause of your symptoms.
As to whether another "non STD organism" is responsible, I am doubtful. My guess is that you have the chronic pelvic pain syndrome, formerly considered a form of prostatitis -- but probably not due to infection and not likely to improve with ofloxacin or any other antibiotic. But still, if your doctor recommends antibiotic treatment, you should follow that advice and see if it helps. For more information about CPPS, google that term (spell it out), then start your reading with the excellent Wikipedia article and the information you can find from the Stanford University department of urology.
I did not say your symptoms are psychosomatic, only that they are not caused by any STD. They definitely are not caused by herpes, regardless of your test result. In other words, if your HSV-2 blood test is truly positive, then you have asymptomatic genital herpes plus another cause of your symptoms.
As to whether another "non STD organism" is responsible, I am doubtful. My guess is that you have the chronic pelvic pain syndrome, formerly considered a form of prostatitis -- but probably not due to infection and not likely to improve with ofloxacin or any other antibiotic. But still, if your doctor recommends antibiotic treatment, you should follow that advice and see if it helps. For more information about CPPS, google that term (spell it out), then start your reading with the excellent Wikipedia article and the information you can find from the Stanford University department of urology.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
The advice that your wife did not need testing was based on the symptoms and sexual exposure you described above, and was not meant to be related to the HSV test results. Sorry if that wasn't clear. Also, it was not clear until now that your HSV-2 test result is a true positive, i.e. that you definitely have genital herpes. Now that this is clear (with the test value over 3.5), your wife should also be tested for HSV-2.
For now, hold off on suppressive therapy. There are only 2 reasons for such treatment: to prevent recurrent symptoms, which you don't have; and to prevent transmission, which may not be necessary. It's a good bet you will find your wife also has a positive test for HSV-2, in which case she is already infected and there is no need to worry about transmission of the virus to her. (People do not get reinfected with the same virus type they already have.) If she has lucked out, i.e. has not been infected despite 16 years of regular sex with you, then you can consider suppressive therapy to prevent transmission in the future. But even in that situation, many couples would decide it isn't necessary, especially after this much time. That would be a personal decision to be made jointly by you, your wife, and her or your doctor (or both).
For now, hold off on suppressive therapy. There are only 2 reasons for such treatment: to prevent recurrent symptoms, which you don't have; and to prevent transmission, which may not be necessary. It's a good bet you will find your wife also has a positive test for HSV-2, in which case she is already infected and there is no need to worry about transmission of the virus to her. (People do not get reinfected with the same virus type they already have.) If she has lucked out, i.e. has not been infected despite 16 years of regular sex with you, then you can consider suppressive therapy to prevent transmission in the future. But even in that situation, many couples would decide it isn't necessary, especially after this much time. That would be a personal decision to be made jointly by you, your wife, and her or your doctor (or both).
To expand a little on my question...I'm convinced by you (and my doctor) that the exposure that I had was zero risk and that I've been asymptomatically infected for 16 years, but if my wife has never had symptoms isn't she at risk unless I know her status and/or go on suppressive therapy?
I checked with my provider and both test values were above 3.5. I'm curious why would you not have my wife tested?
Can I reframe my question. I do believe that the pain that I'm having is more than psychsomatic and let's say that the Dr. is right that it is caused by a non STD organism (she recommended oflacacin). My question is more how to interpret the Herpesselect positive. Is it possible that I've been positive for 16 years of monogamy and not known it? If my wife is tested. THe Dr recommended that I have her tested to take future precautions against transmission if she is negative. Is there any possibility at this point that she is negative? I'm just not sure how to interpret all of this.
Also, I actually resisted getting the test. The dr. said that most people who are positive don't know it and that she recommends screening all her patients.
Also, I actually resisted getting the test. The dr. said that most people who are positive don't know it and that she recommends screening all her patients.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
The main advice you received in your thread last September is that it was not possible to acquire an STD from the exposure you described; and, therefore, no symptoms you have could possibly be due to something you caught in the lingerie parlor. I agree with everything you say your doctor said, except I see no need for your wife to be tested for anything. (My bet is that your doctor did not actually suggest that until you asked her about it, looking for still more reassurance.)
You're going to just have to accept the apparently difficult reality that you don't have an STD. It is not normal to continue with fears of this sort despite such overwheming evidence and the consistent advice from your doctor and our discussion in September. If you continue to obsess about it, your next step should be to ask your primary care doctor whether professional counseling is in order. I suggest it out of compassion, not criticism.
That is all I will have to say. This forum has nothing more to offer you. Good luck.
HHH, MD
You're going to just have to accept the apparently difficult reality that you don't have an STD. It is not normal to continue with fears of this sort despite such overwheming evidence and the consistent advice from your doctor and our discussion in September. If you continue to obsess about it, your next step should be to ask your primary care doctor whether professional counseling is in order. I suggest it out of compassion, not criticism.
That is all I will have to say. This forum has nothing more to offer you. Good luck.
HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
