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Could I have given wife STD?

Dear Dr Handsfield and Dr. Hook,

I am a married man.  On May 14 I met with a woman I had corresponded with after having met on Craigslist.  She claims never to have done it before but who knows?  She is African American and I would say around 26 (I'm white and 42).  We had unprotected sex.  I got worried and had a test for gonorrhea and Chlamydia on May 31.  It was negative for both.

We met and had unprotected sex again on June 7, July 3 and July 18.  After this I told her I could not continue as I had come to my senses and realized how stupid I had been with my marriage.

Sometime around August 1 to August 5 my wife got a yeast infection (it may have been even earlier.  I don't know for sure).  At first I didn't think anything about it but she bought a one day treatment, took it around August 5 and it didn't cure her.  It also had been a very long time since she had a yeast infection (maybe a year or two). Several (maybe 4 or 5) days later she bought a 3 day treatment.  Over the course of a week the symptoms went away.  I don't know if she had  discharge or not.  She mentioned the yeast infection and that it itched and the itching was bothering her.

Before the treatment for the yeast infection was finished I went and tested again on August 12.  Both tests (gonorrhea and chlamydia) came back negative.  The entire time I had no symptoms at all.

So here's my question.  I have read here that chlamydia and gonorrhea can clear up on their own and sometimes within a few weeks.  Is it at all likely that  between my sexual encounter on June 7 and my test on August 15 that I had one of these diseases, had it clear on its own so that my test was negative, and gave it to my wife?  How likely is it that the yeast infection was in fact an STD whose symptoms receded over the course of 2 weeks that corresponded to the treatments my wife took?
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Gonorrhea and chlamydia are not very likely to cause symptoms that would be mistaken for yeast, at least not by a trained professional.  If your wife is self diagnosed, however, I really can't comment because I don't know the details of her symptoms, how typical her past symptoms have been, etc.  (The main symptom of yeast is vulvar irritation and itching, with minimal increased vaginal discharge.  The main symptom of gonorrhea/chamydia is increased discharge.)

However, your concern about gonorrhea and chlamydia is not realistic.  As already discussed, the evidence is overwhelming that you did not catch either one.  It's not a serious consideration for your wife.  You can stop obsessing about spontaneous cure.  In my comment on the thread above, the stress is on months; cure within 4 weeks probably never occurs.
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Avatar universal
Thank you for your reply.  The timing of the yeast infection had me worried.  I don't know if the symptoms were typical for other episodes as that isn't something she discussed with me.

I'm curious if someone had symptoms of chlamydia or gonorrhea and had no reason to believe they weren't a yeast infection, how likely would they be to mistake it for a yeast infection?  Are they really similar enough that it could fool someone who had no reason to suspect an STD?

Finally, how long would spontaneous cure typically take?  In other threads (e.g. http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/Chlamydia-/show/1771743) you've mentioned that chlamydia is rarely carried by men for more than a few weeks or months and that pre-antibiotic gonorrhea was believed to clear in an average of six weeks.  Is the overwhelming case a few months rather than weeks?  I hate to ask for clarification but I'm worried sick about  my wife being harmed by one of these diseases but I obviously have a lot to lose by revealing this one time infidelity.

Also, I intend to get the HIV and syphilis test this week.  Thank you again for your advice and knowledge.
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the forum.  Thanks for your question.

This strikes me as a potentially high risk scenario, especially if your extramerital partner is also hooking up with other men, especially without using condoms; or if she has a regular partner who might also be having other partners.

Could you have missed a chlamydial infection or gonorrhea that spontaneously cleared in 2 months?  Very unlikely; spontaneous cure usually takes longer than that.  Your lack of urethral symptoms (abnormal discharge, pain or discomfort on urination) also suggests you weren't infected.  Gonorrhea in particular almost always cause prominent sympomts you would not have missed.  

Your comments suggest your wife's yeast infection was self-diagnosed.  The symptoms of vaginal yeast infections are pretty standard.  If her symptoms were typical compared with other episodes, or if she was professionally diagnosed, then that's probably what she had.  That the treatment worked is additional evidence.  (I'm not concerned that the 1 day treatment may not have worked; it's inherently less reliable.)  

To complete your own STD evaluation, I would advise you have blood tests for syphilis and HIV.  I expect them to be negative, and I certainly neither of those is suggested by your wife's apparent yeast infection.  In any case, if those tests are negative and your wife remains well, without any other unexplained genital symptoms, you can move on without further worry.

I hope this has helped.  Best wishes--  HHH, MD
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