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574118 tn?1305135284

can one think what is this

Hi

This is an answer in another forum I received long time ago when asking about AD's and how it triggered my BP.

<<<<>>>>

Yesterday a strange thing occurred to me. I lacked dopamine and was extremely lethargic dying of fatigue then suddenly my heart pumped got up went out to buy things ate like hungry sort of manic then came the euthymia for the rest of the day. My question I always believed that my BP symptoms were due to the 1st AD I took that drove me manic and the road of no return like it says in the above letter. But then without any AD for a year now and the 3 phases manifest themselves in only one day means to me my case deteriorates I suppose. Can one think of an answer to this. Have i become rapid cycler after one whole year of moderate stability. am i deteriorating ?
thanks.    
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Avatar universal
Do you have any old journals you can go back and look at, or people you can ask?

Taking more medication may mean that you are getting worse of it may be a result of tolerance. Tolerance is where you need more of a drug to get the same effect because your body gets used to it. As well if you are leaning towards mania you would need more of an antipsychotic than if you are in depression so that may be why they prescribed an increase.

I'd talk to your psychiatrist about it. They should give you a straight up answer and they have a medical chart and can look back and see how you are doing.

As for the kindling effect there is evidence that untreated bipolar gets worse as you age and I suppose could turn a two into a one. There is evidence that lithium helps reduce the kindling effect. I imagine there will be more research forthcoming on whether or not other drugs like lamotrigine or the AP's do that. It is really interesting that lithium actually increases blood flow to the brain. I can't take lithium due to kidney issues though so hopefully lamotrigine does the same type of thing.
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574118 tn?1305135284
what i really wonder about is whether i am being medicated correctly because my pdoc chose AP's and still does contrary to MS that I detested and tried lithium with no success on the contrary kept erring in the house like mad.

So I read today:
---somebody who goes untreated could go from a diagnosis of bipolar II to bipolar I as the disorder progresses.---

therefore my concern was depression for 9 consecutive years (can't get up except by a tricyclic AD). now it's mania and no depression for one whole year and am keeping the AP's near by to avoid mania.

So to simplify my question does this mean i am not improving on the contrary getting worse, because i used to take 50mg seroquel now 150 !!
thanks
Helpful - 0
574118 tn?1305135284
yes BP III is cyclothemia. i am following akiskal school, check
http://www.psycom.net/depression.central.lieber.html
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Avatar universal
There isn't Bipolar III in the DSM but there is Cyclothymic disorder which is what you are describing.
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574118 tn?1305135284
Hi

sorry it seems between the brackets is to be removed so i am rewriting it:

This is an answer in the bipolar forum i received long time ago when asking about AD's and how it triggered my BP.

--Some pdocs refer to this as Bipolar III. The person will have had minor bipolar symptoms going back years, as many with late-onset bipolar do. Antidepressants or other meds initiate a permanent change in symptoms, causing them to become more extreme and cross the threshold into diagnosable - or clinical - bipolar disorder. Some meds can do the above, and others can cause short-term bipolar symptoms in some people. It could be that those people have some of the genetics of bipolar, but not enough for a diagnosis--

Yesterday a strange thing occurred to me. I lacked dopamine and was extremely lethargic dying of fatigue then suddenly my heart pumped got up went out to buy things ate like hungry sort of manic then came the euthymia for the rest of the day. My question I always believed that my BP symptoms were due to the 1st AD I took that drove me manic and the road of no return like it says in the above letter. But then without any AD for a year now and the 3 phases manifest themselves in only one day means to me my case deteriorates I suppose. Can one think of an answer to this. am i rapid cycler after one whole year of moderate stability  am i deteriorating.?
thanks
ezz    
Helpful - 0
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