Aa
Condoms
Hello everybody,
I'm a 25 yr old, single, uncircumcised male, and wouldn't consider myself 'sexually active' as such in terms of the relative amount of sexual partners I've had. Only been with 3 women in my entire life, 2 of whom I am sure are HIV negative. I've been practicing safe sex all my life, well nearly all my life :). Unfortunately the third woman I'm referring to was a prostitute at a posh hotel's spa, I hastily made a decision to indulge in protected oral & vaginal sex with this girl about 2 months ago. It was a single non-risk exposure. More on that in my brief questions.
I've been reading some of the posts on here for the last couple of days, and was relieved to see that a protected encounter is Zero risk as long as condoms are used properly. However, since I am in no way even a novice in matters of sex, I was slightly perturbed by the fact that I really hadn't taken the time to educate myself properly on matters of safe sex, and have come to conclusion that this forum is truly enlightened in these matters -- I hope to remain safe regardless of the encounters that come my way in the future, hence I have a few questions I'd like to ask in context to my time line of exposures. I'd be sincerely grateful if I could receive some detailed feedback as they will indeed help me better understand the risks I take in regards to HIV transmission.
(a) When I was 18, my first girlfriend was 100% a virgin, and never did any IV drugs. I had unprotected sex with her, It's safe to assume that this was a NO RISK situation then? Correct?
(b) I broke up with my second girlfriend last year, and since then have had NO sexual contact with her. Assuming her most recent unprotected exposure before me was back in Dec 2005, if she had taken an HIV antibody test now in July 2008, is there even the slightest chance that her negative result is in anyway inconclusive?
(c) Do condom's ever break without it being obvious?
(d) Without any actual investigation on my part, Is there a possibility that an inexperienced person like me WOULDN'T be able tell if a condom has failed after sex (I don't drink whatsoever)? As in, is there any chance that I'd NOT notice it somehow when I look at it after sexual intercourse?
(e) In this incident 2 months ago with the spa sex worker, the condoms were by Durex and were stated to be extra lubricated. Is condom breakage something very common, or considered something rare?
Thank you, I'd really appreciate if someone could take the time to explain the above to me as I'd like to better understand what my actual risks were in terms of all the exposures I've had thus far in my life.
I'm a 25 yr old, single, uncircumcised male, and wouldn't consider myself 'sexually active' as such in terms of the relative amount of sexual partners I've had. Only been with 3 women in my entire life, 2 of whom I am sure are HIV negative. I've been practicing safe sex all my life, well nearly all my life :). Unfortunately the third woman I'm referring to was a prostitute at a posh hotel's spa, I hastily made a decision to indulge in protected oral & vaginal sex with this girl about 2 months ago. It was a single non-risk exposure. More on that in my brief questions.
I've been reading some of the posts on here for the last couple of days, and was relieved to see that a protected encounter is Zero risk as long as condoms are used properly. However, since I am in no way even a novice in matters of sex, I was slightly perturbed by the fact that I really hadn't taken the time to educate myself properly on matters of safe sex, and have come to conclusion that this forum is truly enlightened in these matters -- I hope to remain safe regardless of the encounters that come my way in the future, hence I have a few questions I'd like to ask in context to my time line of exposures. I'd be sincerely grateful if I could receive some detailed feedback as they will indeed help me better understand the risks I take in regards to HIV transmission.
(a) When I was 18, my first girlfriend was 100% a virgin, and never did any IV drugs. I had unprotected sex with her, It's safe to assume that this was a NO RISK situation then? Correct?
(b) I broke up with my second girlfriend last year, and since then have had NO sexual contact with her. Assuming her most recent unprotected exposure before me was back in Dec 2005, if she had taken an HIV antibody test now in July 2008, is there even the slightest chance that her negative result is in anyway inconclusive?
(c) Do condom's ever break without it being obvious?
(d) Without any actual investigation on my part, Is there a possibility that an inexperienced person like me WOULDN'T be able tell if a condom has failed after sex (I don't drink whatsoever)? As in, is there any chance that I'd NOT notice it somehow when I look at it after sexual intercourse?
(e) In this incident 2 months ago with the spa sex worker, the condoms were by Durex and were stated to be extra lubricated. Is condom breakage something very common, or considered something rare?
Thank you, I'd really appreciate if someone could take the time to explain the above to me as I'd like to better understand what my actual risks were in terms of all the exposures I've had thus far in my life.
You're welcome.
Thank you.
No, chlamyda will not affect the results of an HIV test.
I'm sorry to pester you, but in regards to your earlier insight about chlamydia being a possibility in this scenario. Could her having it, have affected the conclusiveness of her recent HIV test? Is it logical on my part to assume that if I indeed was infected with Chlamydia by this girl back in 2007, I would've known through symptomatic evidence?
Thank you Teak for your insight into each of my questions. About chlamydia, when you deem it 'possible', do you mean to say that her HIV Testing could've been affected to a degree of inconclusiveness if she has this STD? And If I have indeed been infected with Chlamydia, would I have known through symptoms?
Chlamdia possible. Gonorrhea not possible.
A. correct
B. no
C. no
D. no, you would know without a doubt.
E. Usually uncommon for most that use them correctly. That is why a water base lube should always be used.
B. no
C. no
D. no, you would know without a doubt.
E. Usually uncommon for most that use them correctly. That is why a water base lube should always be used.
There is something else that's been weighing on my mind Teak. My second girl-friend, the one who got tested for HIV recently; she frequently suffered a condition commonly known as "Bartholin's Cyst" -- a swelling on her left side labia which periodically comes & goes. The condition in itself I understand has nothing to do with HIV & ARS symptoms, and her recent negative result proves it, correct? However she told me that she believes she contracted this condition sexually, by having brief contact with a male who's sexual history is questionable, many many years ago. After some research, I came to understand that Gonorrhea or Chlamydia is one of the prime causes for Bartholin's, and in her recent test she never tested for STDs -- only for HIV 1 & 2 and Syphilis. Is there a possibility that she's had Gonorrhea/Chlamydia all these years without knowing it? If she indeed does have either one, was I at risk of contracting these? Could her having these STD's have affected her HIV test in anyway?
Thank you Teak, I just went to your profile and noticed that you're indeed more than qualified in matters of HIV. I appreciate your re-assurance. However for betterment of my understanding as well as for future's reference sake, would it be possible you or anyone could address my queries specifically?
Condoms do not break without one knowing. You were never at risk of contracting HIV.
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