I'm a male and I had unprotected vaginal intercourse (female's HIV status unknown, although not part of a higher risk group) and then did an HIV test 60 days later.
The results came in as follows (blood sample taken 60 days after intercourse):
a) HIV COMBO- Test (1/2/0- Ab+p24- Ag): reactive
b) HIV 1/2-westernblot: negative
The comment on the test result was:
"The reactive result in the screening test could not be confirmed by Western blot analysis. Most likely nonspecific reaction. Thus, there is no evidence of an HIV infection. Only in case of continued clinical suspicion of a recent infection, a follow-up investigation of HIV-1 RNA detection by PCR in EDTA blood or HIV1+2 antibodies in serium in 2-3 weeks should be performed to rule out early seroconversion."
Due to the conflicting result I also did a HIV-1 RNA PCR test 12 days later (72 days after unprotected intercourse), which came in NEGATIVE.
I am worried due to the following:
a) The COMBO test was done 60 days after potential exposure, which should be conclusive. However, the Western Blot test can show a positive result later than the antibody test, so I'm worried that maybe the COMBO test picked up the HIV infection, but it was too early for the Western Blot test to confirm it.
b) I did the RNA test 72 days after potential exposure, and as I'm reading, it's possible that after so much time the viral load might have already decreased too much for the HIV infection to be detected by the RNA PCR test?
Based on this data, should I repeat the test (and if yes, WHAT test exactly) or are these results conclusive that I do not have HIV?
It has now been about 100 days since the encounter.
Thank you!