Hi,
Thanks for the opportunity to pose a question.
Two weeks ago, I met a guy (status unknown) in a gay sex club. He performed unprotected oral sex on me in a cabin there. The oral sex was prolonged, though I did not ejaculate. Given the setting, I would say it is very likely he also had oral sex (at least) with other guys before (and after) me.
Six days later, I woke-up with an inflammed foreskin, red urethra, burning on urination and then some discharge.
Two days ago, this was confirmed as gonorrhea. The clinic was unsure about chlamydia (doctor said that gonorrhea tends to "dominate"), so I received the injection to treat the gonorrhea and oral anti-biotics as a precaution for chlamydia. The symptoms are almost gone now.
Of course, I am convinced that I have stupidly put myself at major risk of HIV infection, because of the casual nature of the encounter, no use of protection and, above all, because I caught gonorrhea (and possibly chlamydia, too).
I did mention my concern to the doctor at the clinic, who simply told me that HIV is rarely spread in this way, whereas gonorrhea and chlamydia ARE easily spread in this way. She also said I should have an HIV (and full) STD range of tests again three months from now. (I do occasionally have sex with men, including anal, but always with condoms.)
The guy who I caught the STD from obviously had gonorrhea in his throat. How common (percentages per exposure?) is it for gonorrhea to be passed-on this way?
Does the presence of the gonorrhea infection in his throat increase his ability to pass on HIV orally to a guy receiving oral sex from him?
Finally, if he had (or had had) another guy's semen in his mouth before me, would that increase any risk of transmitting HIV (or any other STD?) to a guy receiving oral sex from him?
Needless to say, this whole episode has taught me a bit of a lesson - sometimes, I suppose, one needs to learn lessons the hard way.
Thank you for your time. Take care.