Hello. I am a 40 year old man, and two weeks ago I received unprotected oral sex, and also performed oral sex on a woman. Two days after the encounter I experienced sore throat and fever, and a day after that I began experiencing painful urination. About five days after the encounter I noticed my right groin lymph node being quite swollen and occasionally tender. 10 days after the encounter I decided to go get examined at a clinic for gonorrhea and chlamydia, having heard that painful urination is a symptom of both of these diseases. The clinic noted to me that 10 days was too early to perform the swab/urine tests, but did prescribe me Rocephin injection and 1g Azithromycin for treatment in the likely event that I did in fact have G and/or C. Two days after the antibiotics, my painful urination completely resolved, and I notice the groin lymph node has been decreasing in size. At this point I have accepted that I did in fact contract at least one of these diseases, and will be abstaining from unprotected oral sex in the future.
However, at this point I am concerned about the possibility that I contracted HIV as well from the encounter, since it appears that my partner had another STD already, which I have heard increases chances of transmission. I know that oral sex is usually highly unlikely to transmit the virus, but am I much more likely to have contracted it since I contracted another STD from the same encounter? I know symptoms are not supposed to be used in any meaningful way for diagnosing HIV but the only things I have noticed are the sore throat two days after my encounter (which was diagnosed by urgent care as an upper respiratory infection and successfully treated with Amoxicillin within a couple of days), and occasional brief pulsing pain in the neck and armpit areas where lymph nodes might be.
I am planning to test for HIV once the timing is right but I just wanted to get some idea of the likelihood that I may have contracted it from this encounter.
Thank you for your advice.