What part of you didn't have an exposure is it you are not comprehending?
Wait a minute here...
Three months later with a pending question is not and should not be deemed excessive. I've literally taken this entire episode off my mind based on THIS FORUM.
Now I'm back sticking to protocol with a realistic question. How and why is this threatening to forum management on content? I don't need that question answered. I am just wondering in our scenario if we missed something or got something wrong. Maybe its best to take a test. THAT WAS NEVER SUGGESTED.
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Back with more questions.
Its now July. Since April, steady muscle pains, fatigue. I have TRIED to put out of my head this HIV thing. Nothing over-the-counter works on my muscle pains. I have developed a major sting in my groin area. I wish I had insurance to see a doctor. My wife is now getting flash fevers and muscle aches and a dry cough.
Is it time for us to find an HIV clinic? I know we rule out risk. I've described the incident EXACTLY how it went down, but am worried about oral exposure.
Can you guys chime in?
Understood.
Yes, as described - there was zero condom malfunction. Thank you.
And if someone ejaculated in a condom and then took it off and had oral sex - like after a few minutes - can this be a risk for HIV? We know mostly the semen stays in the condom, but can HIV be transmitted if someone opts to have oral sex after like with residue on a penis? I do not remember if someone washed up or not. I guess what I mean...can HIV residue remain on the penis and transmit in the mouth? Is this a risk to test, since symptoms are present three weeks later?
It doesn't matter in your case because you didn't engage in any risky behavior in regards to HIV. As long as condoms were used consistently and remained intact (which you report to be the case) for any vaginal/anal sex, you have nothing to worry about.
As for testing for other STDs, you may have a slight risk for some, but overall, your risk would be low. If you need more info, post on our STD forum:
http://www.medhelp.org/forums/STDs/show/98
Wife is asking, but if we just found out the guy was bi, is risk higher? Like oral after ejaculation..which happened.
Thank you so much for offering clarity for me. Wife asked me to relay that she just found out that the male is bi, but I don't think that should mean anything. I know for certain we all were safe as textbook...so I would like to close this chapter.
Oops, auto correct....
Polyisoprene
You didn't have a risk for HIV. Condom protected sex=safe sex in regards to HIV. I agree that it sounds like you maybe transmitted a cold, or vice versa.
The ONLY kind of condom that wouldn't be sufficient protection against HIV would be lambskin condoms, which are rarely used, and you wouldn't miss them, they look VERY different from a latex or polspirone condom.
Scott, since you used protection, you had no risk of HIV. Cold and flu germs, on the other hand, are very, very easy to catch, and being in such close proximity to several other people for a prolonged time will definitely spread cold or flu germs. Just get enough rest and drink plenty of fluids and you'll be fine.
You do not need to test. As long as condoms were used and did not fail, you did not have a risk. Maybe one of the other people was getting sick and passed a cold onto you and your wife. For example, if you were exposed to the flu today, you wouldn't be sick tomorrow. Viruses have a "lag time" meaning you might not get that flu for a week or two.
So any need to get tested, or is this something that just passes? I feel is such a weird coincidence. Feel like calling that first couple and ask questions on their health, because they are linked to this. Maybe I am just going crazy. Thought we were all safe.
Oral sex is not a risk for hiv. Condom type does not matter as long as it did not fail.
What about the oral? And I think one of the condoms was non-latex. Does that matter?
You both were never at risk as long as condoms were used. Sounds like the only thing you contracted was a cold.