I said I thought someone could contact HIV without fluid present.
I understand. Thanks jhguy011. I just thought that someone can contact HIV vice versa even if there was no fluid.
if the person topping has a condom on and it gets contaminated by precum, as often when one puts a condom on there is some precum and that can come on the exterior of the condom.if i get anal penetration when my parner is wearing a condom with a good amount of precum contamination ,is it the same risk of contracting hiv as in the case above?
thanks for more explanation as it is confusing me
Well, if, for instance, the person "topping" has HIV, then he can leak pre-ejaculate fluid from his penis into the rectum of the person "bottoming." That pre-ejaculate fluid can infect microscopic lesions in the rectum. If the "bottom" has HIV, the top can get it from becoming infected by the blood coming from the same microscopic lesions.
Do you get it now?
I just don't get it, like why should someone get HIV from anal sex, if the person they are having sex with does not ejaculate?
What are you talking about?