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Avatar universal

Interested in your thoughts:

According to the CDC in 2009 there were 10,098 white men who contracted HIV in the United States. They go on to say that of those new HIV+ men that 79% contracted the disease from male to male sexual contact.

So that would leave 2,121 white men who contracted the virus through other means that M2M contact in 2009. Assuming that at least some of those remaining males contracted the disease via IV drug use....could it be accurately assumed that less than 1500 white men a year are contracting the virus through heterosexual contact?

Can that even be close to right? Seems way to low with all the high risk behavior white males are involved in nationwide?

I have no clue...just have been studying up after my recent risky behavior and I have become very interested in these statistics.
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Avatar universal
I find those #'s pretty mind blowing...

I guess my conservative upbringing skewed my thoughts...but I had no idea so few white heterosexual males got HIV.
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Avatar universal
Those figures are about right and seem reasonable.Australia 2009,65% of new infections were MSM,28% hetrosexual 3% IV drug use.
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About this forum:

If you believe you have been exposed to HIV and want help to judge your risk, would like advice about HIV testing, or have questions about the effectiveness of condoms or risks associated with specific sexual practices, this is the site for you.
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Avatar universal
I understand your thoughts and believe me I appreciate your willingness to answer my question.

But I am curious what the thoughts are on these #'s...because if true it seems the potential of a white, heterosexual, non IV drug using male contracting HIV is minuscule in the U.S?

And I have always been told the opposite.
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Avatar universal
You never had an exposure from masturbation.
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