Last week I had vaginal penetrative sex with a man that I didn't know well (who in retrospect was looking for a quick hook up) - I made it clear that we would be using a condom but unknown to me part way through he intentionally removed it and continued to have sex for maybe 2-3 minutes before I noticed and demanded he stop. He then pressured me to have unprotected sex or unprotected anal sex which I strongly refused. He masturbated until he came and then left (I was relieved that he didn't try to force me to be honest). Never again.
He did not ejaculate inside me and had been wearing the condom previously so whilst it was hard to tell if there was any pre-cum, it would have been a small amount left on the head of his penis by that stage.
My main worry was that he was from Sub-Saharan Africa and if that was his attitude towards trying to have unprotected sex with me, I think it's indicative of a higher risk approach from him in general. He has not responded to the message I sent him afterwards asking if he'd ever been tested as I was very worried.
Apart from being angry, I am now very worried that i might have been exposed given his background. I would like to understand the risk of HIV from a person of unknown status without ejaculation (I've read unprotected vagainal sex with a known HIV positive partner is 6.5/10,000 and the UK statistic for risk of HIV from unprotected sex with a sub-Saharan partner with unknown status is 1/32,000 so I'm hoping pretty darn low?).
In additional I went to a sexual health clinic and they prescribed PEP treatment but it was right on the border of 72 hours - might have even been 73/74 hours - I'm unsure.
I hope the odds are pretty high in my favour but I am going to spend the next 3 months worried sick so was hoping to understand transmission risk in a bit more detail. Thank you for any assistance.