Aa
very confused
Hello I am new on this forum and I don't know very much about HIV transmission and I need your help.
Let's suppose that a man infected with HIV has unprotected vaginal sex with a seronegative woman only one time.
There are no cuts on his penis and she is not menstruating.and has no wounds inside her vagina.
Theoretically he can infect the woman through either blood or sperm..Am I right?
Since the blood does not exist in this scenario ,the only way he can infect her in this case is only if he ejaculates his infected sperm inside her.Am I right here?Is my logic good?
So ..let's suppose that he has sex with her but does not ejaculate inside her...Then her risk for contracting HIV is 0?
I am waiting for your answers....
And I am sorry if my questions are stupid but I do not know very much about HIV transmission....
Robert
Let's suppose that a man infected with HIV has unprotected vaginal sex with a seronegative woman only one time.
There are no cuts on his penis and she is not menstruating.and has no wounds inside her vagina.
Theoretically he can infect the woman through either blood or sperm..Am I right?
Since the blood does not exist in this scenario ,the only way he can infect her in this case is only if he ejaculates his infected sperm inside her.Am I right here?Is my logic good?
So ..let's suppose that he has sex with her but does not ejaculate inside her...Then her risk for contracting HIV is 0?
I am waiting for your answers....
And I am sorry if my questions are stupid but I do not know very much about HIV transmission....
Robert
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