I have been having symptoms for two months now and they occur right around the beginning of my menstrual cycle and last about two weeks. I've been to my regular doctor several times and she seems stumped as to what might be going on.
When the symptoms first started back at the beginning of September, I went in to the doctor and an exam was done but no culture. The doctor prescribed the topical metro gel based on the redness, swelling, and irritation thinking it was BV. The metro gel caused even more horrendous irritation, so I went back in and they did a culture - and nothing showed up at that point. However, the symptoms did not subside, so my doctor prescribed Flagyl in pill form and about a week later (and a week after my cycle ended) my symptoms cleared up.
Two weeks later my period starts again and once again I start experiencing symptoms - severe vaginal pain and itching, irritation, redness, swelling, and a lot of clearish-yellowish discharge. Once again, I went in to my doctor and this time she does a culture prior to administering any antibiotics. My culture comes back positive for staph. I had never heard of a vaginal staph infection. My doctor prescribed Cipro (tests showed the staph was resistant to penicillin) and after two rounds (three days each) it has finally cleared up again (again, about a week after my cycle has ended and after two three-day rounds of the cipro). She also recommends having a herpes blood test done because she wonders how I contracted the staph and why it is recurring with my cycle. She thinks it may be a secondary infection related to a possible herpes outbreak (which she says can sometimes occur with a woman's menstrual cycle). She tests for both the long-term and short-term antibodies. My test for the long-term antibodies comes back negative but she said the short-term comes back as positive and showing a recent infection. She said some people never make the long-term antibodies and it is possible I've had this infection for a long time but never had symptoms until now. I am married and am in a committed, long-term relationship (I would have had to contract this more than 8 years ago and not have had any symptoms until now). Infidelity as a means of introducing HSV2 is not an option. My doctor prescribed Valtrex that I am supposed to start taking about 2 days prior to my next menstrual cycle.
I guess my question is this - does this sound like herpes? I have not had any lesions that any doctor has seen and I guess I'm not really sure how a vaginal staph infection differs from BV (I have not been able to find much about it online). Could herpes be causing the staph? If it is herpes, could it have been dormant for 8 years or more (and stayed dormant through two pregnancies and births?). I'm confused, but more than anything, I don't want to have to go through these kinds of symptoms everytime I have my period. I'm willing to try the Valtrex (and my husband has no issue with any of this - he knows neither of us has been unfaithful) but if it isn't herpes, should I request antibiotics again right away at the first sign of symptoms? Not sure if is relevant, but I am in my early 40s.