Say a man has gotten a cold sore. The next week it’s in the healing process (scabbing). Him and his girlfriend have sex she gives him oral and then they have vaginal sex. He doesn’t kiss her at all, or give her oral at all. She just gives him oral and she has sex with him. There’s no contact with his mouth at all. Is she at risk even if they did not touch where the original site of the cold sore was? Or after the week?
Oh wow. I didn’t know that. I thought it was in the semen, like HIV kinda. Because semen they are classified as bodily fluid. So let’s say it was the other way around as being the female with the cold sore. Would her vaginal secretions have the virus in it? Or if no one had a sore/outbreak, would the shedding be in the secretion/semen. Or just touching that site where the infection goes.
Would this be the same case as in someone having HSV2 and having an outbreak and shedding, but you can kiss them? But not have sex. Sorry just tryna I understand how the virus work. It’s kinda tricky i know.
It's only where the infection is. Oral herpes is only infectious from the mouth, genital herpes is only infectious from the genitals.
It is not transmitted by body fluids - it's direct skin to skin contact. Herpes isn't found in semen or vaginal secretions, unless it's happened to pass over an outbreak. Either way, though, your skin has to come into contact with it on their skin, and there has to be friction for you to get it, usually the kind of friction associated with oral sex or intercourse.