Hi and thank you very much for the informative reply. This is new to me so I'm just trying to understand how this infection works....I appreciate the help.
My ex-girlfriend had an abnormal pap smear which would indicate one of the high risk strains of the virus...is that correct?
I just want to make sure I understand correctly. This is not like a herpes infection where it's more localized? An infection anywhere on the body simply infects the entire person? So say for instance after oral sex...the virus travels through the body to the cervix as well?
Also this would mean if we were to have intercourse, efforts to prevent infection (aka condoms) would be useless?
Thanks again.
If your current gf has had at least 3 partners, then she probably already has been exposed to at least one of the HPV in the vaccine. If it will make you both feel better, check with her dr about the vaccine.
How does your ex-gf know she has an HPV case? Is it the wart kind or the did she have an abnormal pap due to HPV? Please remember that at any given moment, 1/4 of the sexually active population has an active case of HPV so it's very common.
Since you both have been sexually active with each other (intercourse is not necessary to transmit HPV), she has already been exposed to whatever type you have at the moment.
Still, you should talk to your current gf and encourage her to get regular yearly paps. It's the best defense against HPV abnormal cells turning to cancer.