While I was filing old paperwork I found a report of the only evoked potentials test I had from 11 years ago. It was normal, but said "Scalp amplitude was within normal limits, but at the upper end. The large amplitude scalp response is not sufficient to suggest a cortical origin for the myoclonus."
What is a large amplitude scalp response? I know it's probably meaningless, but I was just curious.
This was the neurologist's final report at the time (this was at Mayo Clinic):
"In the final analysis, the diagnosis is spinal myoclonus but without any structural lesion or systemic cause with which to link this. The cause is open to speculation. Given all of the negative findings and the rather localized problem, I am left to question the possibility of an autoimmune etiology. Obviously, we do not have any blood work to support that; however, there certainly are autoimmune disorders in which organ-specific antibodies are present in isolation."
After this I had a 5-day IV of Solu-Medrol and was sent on my merry way. In the years following, any return visits to the doctor due to fatigue and muscle jerks left me with a diagnosis of anxiety or depression and tourette's syndrome. I've gone years without significant problems, but the last couple years I feel like I've gone downhill.
Should I push for more testing? Could the myoclonus have been caused by 20 mg of Prozac which I was taking at the time? I still have the myoclonus occasionally and haven't taken Prozac for 8 or 9 years, and every doctor I ask says that it wouldn't cause that, but I still wonder. It was so bad back then that I would occasionally jerk so hard I'd fall down.