What's the chance for pregnancy?

[Bigboi223]

Can someone lend some insights into this please?

Made a bit of a spontaneous mistake. In brief, my ex and I engaged in unprotected intercourse a few days after her period ended. The first time we used a condom the entire time. The second time however, we had unprotected sex for a little bit and then I used a condom for the second half of our sex. However, I did not urinate in between the time I ejaculated the first time and the second time we began sex unprotected. I've read conflicting information in regards to a woman getting pregnant from the leftover semen in a man's urethra if he had not urinated between sessions. However, as I did not get anywhere near climaxing before putting a condom on (aka no pre-ejaculate) I was wondering what my chances were that she might be pregnant. I've also been looking into ovulation periods and all that stuff and was confused as to how many days/hours a woman ovulates and the time period she actually begins this process. I've always been under the impression that for most women, having unprotected sex immediately following her getting over a period poses these least amount of risk for a woman getting pregnant but am not 100% sure. Any insights would be appreciated.

Thanks,
BigBoi223

[mommyagain123]

Even if she has a very short cycle if you had sex 3 or 4 days after her period ended it's unlikely that she would become pregnant

[Bigboi223]

Hey Ladies,

Thanks very much for the quick responses. I thought I was being responsible about this by only going for a little while without the use of a condom but when I started reading that if you do not urinate between sexual encounters, there is semen still left in the urethra which could potentially get a woman pregnant. She doesn't keep close track of her cycles however, because I was with her for about a year, I know she gets it at relatively the same time each month (usually the 24th of each month). Like I said, I definitely did not ejaculate inside her, the only concern I had was with whatever semen was left in my urethra from the first sexual encounter earlier that day that had me concerned.

-BigBoi223

[Cassandrajane]

If she has regular 28 day cycle. She wouldnt of Ovulated when you had sex... She would have ovulated 2 weeks AFTER her period. And you never know with Pre ejaculation as its not like ejaculating... so you never know with that one...

I doubt she is pregnant because if her cycles are regular she wouldn't have been ovulating.

But if she hasn't had her next period ask her to take a test.

[Sarah61086]

it depends on her cycle length.
EG if she had a period every 28 days then day 14 would be when she ovulates, but if its a 45 day period for example it would be on day 26 that she would ovulate.
If you ejaculated into the condom and not her then chances of pregnancy are highly unlikely especially as it was only a few days after her period.
Yes pre-*** has semen in it, but again as it was so close to the end of her period pregnancy chances are very low.
Some websites say you can get pregnant at any time in your cycle depending on ovulation.
Best way to solve the mystery of whether or not she was fertile is to ask her how long her cycles are and count 14 days back from the last day (eg 35 day cycle take 14 days off and that is roughly when she will ovulate) Your fertile period begins about 4-5 days prior to the ovulation day, the day of ovulation and the day after, so about a week altogether.
Pregnancy seems very unlikely from what you have said, i would not be too concerned.
Just use condoms from beginning to end next time :-)