Hi,
I have been with my new boyfriend for the last 5 months. As i was not on the pill we used condoms for the first few months. About 4 weeks ago i decided to go back on the pill and we no longer used condoms. About a week after having sex for the first time without using condoms i felt that i had an infection. I was almost certian I had a UTI, as it felt itchy and i had a burning sensation- I went to the chemist and tried treatment for cystitis and thrush as i really thought it would be one or the other but that did not clear it so i went ot my GP. My Gp said it sounded like a UTI so he took a sample of urine and did some sort of litmus test in surgery, this showed the prescence of some white blood cells. He prescibed some trymethoprim which i took for 1 week however this did not clear my symptoms so i went back. He then prescibed me some augmentin antibiotic- which seemed to clear it up, felty 99% right.
A week ago i had sex again with my boyfriend without a condom and the previous symptoms re-appeared again a few days after; - felt slighty ichy, needed to urinate more and it stung a bit, i also had a longer period than normal and sex was little more uncomfortable.
I went to a sexual screening clinic yesterday and they said that i had gonorrhea. My boyfriend went to a clinic today and they told him his results were all negative and that he did not have gonorrhea.
Questions- Is it possible that i have had gonorrhea possibly for quite sometime ?
Is it was only a coincidence that i got the symptoms after having sex with my new boyfriend?
Is it possible that he is immune to gonorrhea and thats why his results are negative while mine are not?
If one partner has gonorrhea will the other partner definately have it too?
I am really really confused and feel as you can imagine quite baffled and upset by it all!
Would appreciate any insight
Thanks