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Risk - oral

I received fellatio from a sex worker. I’ve experienced no symptoms and had a test 5.5/6 days post exposure. It was a urine test for chlamydia and gonorrhoea, results were negative. Can a test after this timeframe be considered conclusive? I’ve read mixed things.
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Avatar universal
Also read this should put things into perspective and make you feel better https://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/High-risk-std-HIV-exposure/show/1652591
Helpful - 0
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Thanks again. Honestly, it was a single exposure of 3 to 4 minutes, I’ve seen no symptoms (it’s now been 3 weeks), and I was tested at 6 days and it was negative. I’ll test one more time now the max recommended incubation period is up and after that I can put it to bed!
Avatar universal
If it was a NAA test Nucleic acid amplification then yes
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chlam and Gono are not commonly transmitted through oral
It was a urine test. Not sure what they actually do with the sample!
Even if we took your test results out of the equation which strongly suggest you where not infected at this encounter. The fact is that most csw do not have Sti. most onetime encounters even if your partner is infected do not result in infection. Gono and chlam are not commonly transmitted through oral. You have no symptoms. Put those things together and your odds that you got something are slim. Add your negative test results. I really think you should move on but always practice safe sex even oral in the future.
You’re right. What gets me is the conflicting things about the proportion of men that are asymptomatic. Based on the forum here and the doctors that post here, they say that more men show symptoms than not, particularly if it’s a penile infection. It’s also the testing window of 6 days, again people elsewhere talk about 2 weeks.

With that said I suspect you’re right. I probably shouldn’t worry.

Thanks
Yes most of the information out there is conflicting. you have to go to the facts and put them all together. To ***** the risk.
For risk assessment. It’s funny it would let me type that
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